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Campaign Manager Certification Assessment Answers

The Campaign Manager Certification exam covers planning, implementing, reporting, and troubleshooting reservation buys, while working across partners. It also assesses ad tag delivery, measurement, and troubleshooting methods used to optimize performance. Users completing this exam should be experienced users of Campaign Manager. This exam covers broad product use from trafficking to reporting. Specialized roles (such as Agency Planners) may not be well aligned to the broad knowledge tested by this exam.

  1. The “DCM/DFA Trafficking and Reporting API” can directly accomplish which two tasks? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  2. Which conditions must be true in order to designate an advertiser as a “child”? Select All Correct Responses
  3. What object in Campaign Manager is equivalent to a creative in Display & Video 360?
  4. Audience lists created in Campaign Manager can be automatically shared with which linked applications? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  5. Which two methods measure impressions served in a mobile app? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  6. Which two features may be used to log additional information about a click? (select two)
  7. Counters and Total Interactions metrics are available for which type of creatives?
  8. The Insights tab in Reporting shows the view performance against which three goals? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  9. What are two Video Verification metrics? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  10. When assets are added to an existing creative, where will these updates be reflected?
  11. What action can be taken to select which columns appear in the trafficking interface?
  12. What must a Floodlight tag include to capture product data alongside a conversion?
  13. What ad setting ensures a qualified user will always be served a city-targeted ad first over a country-targeted ad when both ads are assigned to the same placement?
  14. At what level can landing pages be set, so they are the same across multiple ads?
  15. If a publisher serves a placement tag after the campaign end date, what ad will serve?
  16. What level is used to calculate conversions if the lookback window differs between objects?
  17. Agency Admin, Agency Trafficker, and Site Trafficker are examples of what?
  18. What counting method tracks the number of sales made or items purchased?
  19. What Floodlight feature can be used to create a custom audience list that targets customers who purchased a specific product or service?
  20. What section within a Floodlight activity’s settings allows users to add publisher tracking tags?
  21. To set ad status to “active,” which two objects must be assigned to an ad? Select All Correct Responses
  22. Which two tabs in Reporting provide access to viewability data? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  23. What Settings Are Required To Give A User Reporting Access For A Single Advertiser?
  24. What are three benefits of using Internal Redirect tags? (select three)
  25. What is the more cost-effective way to restrict ads served to a specific geographic region?
  26. Paid search dimensions in Report Builder are compatible with what metric?
  27. What report in Report Builder shows the number of unique users who have interacted with ads?
  28. What are two benefits of using the INS tag? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  29. Where in Campaign Manager can the Site ID(s) required to push placements to Display & Video 360 be found?
  30. Which two methods count impressions on site-served creatives? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  31. What HTML elements of a Floodlight tag’s iFrame code identify the unique activity?
  32. Unless default ads are disabled, what campaign trafficking action triggers the automatic creation of a default ad for display placements?
  33. What report tracks Floodlight attribution in Reporting?
  34. What Floodlight conversion counting method would report the first visit for each user within a given day?
  35. Which three workflows can be used to make bulk edits? (select three)
  36. What is the limit to retrieve log data from a Data Transfer Google Bucket?
  37. Where would purchased inventory for a campaign be entered in Campaign Manager?
  38. Which metric is NOT available in Data Transfer?
  39. In the Insights tab in Reporting, which two cards show a snapshot of performance? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  40. What account structure should be used to share Floodlight tags and audience lists between multiple Advertisers?
  41. What action must occur for a team member to get access to Data Transfer files in Google Cloud Storage?
  42. When is an impression counted in Reporting?
  43. When a “plan” is executed in Planning, what information is pushed to Campaign Manager?
  44. At what level can landing pages be managed across campaigns?
  45. Which functionalities are available to manage conversion data using the API? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  46. What feature can be used to combine log-level impression and click data for a custom reach analysis?
  47. When using a placement media cost cap, what will happen once the cap is reached?
  48. When a Top Conversion Paths report shows that most users enter the purchase cycle with a rich media interaction, what action can be taken to optimize the campaign?
  49. What ad setting limits the number of times that ad can be shown to a particular user?
  50. What report shows how long it takes for a customer to convert after interacting with an ad?
  51. What timezone is used in Data Transfer (DT) timestamps for impression and click files?
  52. What data is provided in Video Verification?
  53. Cross-environment conversion methodology takes into account what data sources?
  54. What is required to track mobile app conversions using Floodlight tags?
  55. In a Path to Conversion report, when a user selects to “Pivot On Interaction Path,” what are two major differences from the unpivoted report? (select two)
  56. In which two tags can the keyword macro (%k) be added? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  57. What attribution model uses Floodlight data from both attributed and non-attributed conversions?
  58. What targeting rules display an ad to users who have viewed a product, but not purchased it?
  59. What does an “execution channel” represent in the Planning process?
  60. Which information can be extracted from the data in the Verification tab? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  61. If an Agency Trafficker can only see a subset of active campaigns within their account view, where would a Agency Admin go to adjust access to all campaigns?
  62. What happens when a user meets the frequency cap for an ad?
  63. For Floodlight tags to properly attribute in-app conversions, what needs to happen within the app?
  64. When would a VPAID asset be used?
  65. When the primary HTML5 assets get delayed, what will serve in a user’s browser as it’s loading?
  66. Where are Campaign Manager and Display & Video 360 linked?
  67. What cost model only calculates cost for impressions measured as viewable by Active View?
  68. To link a Display & Video 360 advertiser, what initial step must be taken in Campaign Manager?
  69. When dynamic display creatives are published from Studio, what creative type is set in Campaign Manager?

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