1. Haryana Police SI Final Result 2019
  2. DRDO CEPTAM 09 New Result 2019
  3. UPNHM ANM, Other Post Result 2019
  4. UPHJS 2016 Final Result
  5. AFCAT 01/2019 Result
  6. Coast Guard Navik DB Result 2019
  7. ESIC Medical Officer Result 2019
  8. UPSC Geologist / Geo Science Score Card 2019
  9. MPHC AG III Waiting List
  10. RSMSSB LDC / Junior Assistant Result 2019
  11. UP 68500 Result / Merit List
  12. South Indian Bank PO Final Result 2019
  13. ESIC SSO Phase III Result, Phase II Marks 2019
  14. Bihar Bank Pre Exam Marks
  15. Allahabad HC Driver 2017 Final Result
  16. RBI Officer Grade B Final Result with Marks 2019
  17. UP Police SI / ASI LDC Clerk Result 2019
  18. UP Police Computer Operator Result 2019
  19. Bihar Police BPSSC SI Final Result 2019
  20. UPPCL TG-II CBT & DV Result 2019
  21. Nehru Yuva Kendra NVKS Result 2019
  22. KVS TGT / PGT / PRT Final Result 2019
  23. IBPS PO VIII Mains Score Card
  24. Railway RPF SI Cutoff 2019
  25. Navy SSR / AA Result 2019
  26. RPF Constable Result 2019
  27. MPHC Civil Judge Pre Result 2019
  28. Coast Guard 02/2019 Group 1-10 Result
  29. Delhi HC JJA Technical Result 2019
  30. RPF Constable Cutoff 2019
  31. Canara Bank PO Final Result (Second List) 2019
  32. IIT GATE 2019 Result
  33. National Insurance Account Apprentice Final Result 2019
  34. UPPSC LT Teacher Result 2019
  35. SSC Stenographer 2017 Additional Result 2019
  36. IIT JAM 2019 Result
  37. Karnataka Bank PO Interview Result 2019
  38. RSMSSB LDC Revised Result 2019
  39. RPSC RAS 2018 Pre Marks
  40. Haryana HTET Result 2019
  41. RPF Constable (All Group) Result
  42. NIACL AO Mains Result 2019
  43. SSC Junior Hindi Translator JHT Paper I Result 2019
  44. RRB ALP / Technician Stage II Normalised Score Card 2019
  45. Allahabad HC HJS Phase II Pre Result 2019
  46. Reserve Bank JE Result 2019
  47. Allahabad HC UP HJS 2018 Final Result
  48. BPSC Civil Judge Pre Additional Result 2019
  49. UKPSC 2016 Mains Result
  50. DFCCIL Executive JE Result 2019
  51. SEBI Assistant Manager Final Result 2019
  52. DSSSB Primary Teacher Final Result 2019
  53. Bihar Board Intermediate Result 2019
  54. SSC Stenographer 2017 Final Result 2019
  55. Bihar Board Class 12 Intermediate Result (Server II)
  56. UPPSC PCS Pre 2018 Result 2019
  57. Indian Army JCO Religious Teacher Result 2019
  58. IBPS CWE Clerk VII Provisional Result 2019
  59. IBPS CWE PO VII Provisional Result 2019
  60. IBPS CWE SO VII Provisional Result 2019
  61. CCC February 2019 Result
  62. IBPS Clerk VIII Mains Result 2019
  63. IBPS PO VIII Mains Exam, Interview Result 2019
  64. IBPS SO VIII Mains Exam, Interview Result 2019
  65. Allahabad HC Junior Assistant (Clerk) 2017 District Allotment Result
  66. ONGC Apprentice Result 2019
  67. CSIR NET December 2018 Result
  68. Bihar Police ASI / Steno Mains Result 2019
  69. DFCCIL JE S&T Result 2019
  70. Allahabad HC ARO Samiksha Adhikari, APS, Driver Result 2019
  71. SEBI Asst. Manager Marks, Cutoff 2019
  72. RRB ALP / Technician Stage II Result Date
  73. Bihar Board Class 10 Matrci Result 2019
  74. UPSC Civil Services IAS 2018 Final Result
  75. RRB ALP / Technician Stage II Result 2019 (Declared)
  76. MPPSC SET 2018 Results
  77. UPSESSB TGT/PGT 2011 Final Result 2019
  78. UP Police Constable 2018 Final Result
  79. Indian Airforce X, Y Group 01/2020 Result
  80. UPSC CDS I Result 2019
  81. Jharkhand Board JAC Class 9 Result 2019
  82. Bihar Police SI Final Result with Marks
  83. UPSC Civil Services 2018 Final Result with Marks
  84. UPPSC Medical Officer Direct Recruitment Result 2019
  85. SSC Junior Hindi Translator JHT Marks 2019
  86. SSC Stenographer Result 2019
  87. MPHC Civil Judge Pre Marks 2019
  88. Jharkhand Board Class 8, Class 9 NTS Result 2019
  89. UPPSC Staff Nurse Marks / Cutoff
  90. CGPSC Pre Result 2019
  91. CISF Constable Driver Result 2019
  92. Nehru Yuva NYKS 2018 Various Post Result
  93. ITBP Head Constable Education Stress Result 2019
  94. PNB Technical Officer Result 2019
  95. JPSC Assistant Professor recruitment apply online before 15/05/2019
  96. UPSC CAPF (ACs) recruitment apply online before 20/05/2019
  97. NYKS Various Post Admit Card 2019
  98. Coast Guard Yantrik 02/2019 Result
  99. Patna HC District Judge Pre Result 2019
  100. Patna High Court (PHC) Bihar Notifications
  101. Border Security Force (BSF) Notifications
  102. U.P. Higher Education Services Commission (UPHESC) Allahabad Uttar Pradesh Notifications
  103. Railway RRB Junior Engineer Recruitment apply online before 31/01/2019
  104. Indian Army Women Military Soldier recruitment apply online before 08/06/2019
  105. NEST 2019 Admit Card
  106. PNB Technical Officer Interview Admit Card 2019
  107. Haryana HSSC Junior Engineer Admit Card 2019
  108. IDBI Bank Asst. Manager / Executive PET Admit Card 2019
  109. Union Bank SO Admit Card
  110. NFL UP Marketing Representative Admit Card 2019
  111. Allahabad HC UP HJS 2016 Marks
  112. RPF SI Final Merit List 2019
  113. SEBI Asst. Manager Final Merit List 2019
  114. SBI Clerk 2018 Second Waiting List
  115. UP Board Result Declared Dates 2019
  116. RPF Constable Tradesman Ancillary Result 2019
  117. MPHC Civil Judge Pre Additional Result 2019
  118. MPHC Group D Final Merit List
  119. NFL UP Account Assistant Result 2019
  120. SSC Junior Hindi Translator JHT Additional Result 2019
  121. UP Board Intermediate Result 2019
  122. UP Board High School Result 2019
  123. UP DELEd BTC Second Semester Result 2019
  124. KIITEE Entrance Result 2019
  125. Bihar Vidhan Sabha Various Post 03/2018 Result
  126. YouTube Video for Brand Basics Assessment Answers
  127. What does the Google Preferred Preference Score look at to measure popularity and passion?
  128. What video ad solution can you use to drive visits to your mobile app and increase conversions?
  129. Your agency has specialized in running TV ad campaigns, but now you’re expanding into the thriving digital video market. Which YouTube offering was designed with TV media buyers in mind?
  130. Your manager wants to know how Google can help your brand measure how much more your consumers align with the brand identity after exposure to it — what’s the brand equity impact? Which Brand Lift metric can measure that?
  131. Viewability is a measure of whether or not an ad had a chance to be seen by a user. What is Google’s solution for measuring viewability across the web and is accredited by the Media Ratings Council?
  132. What Google measurement solution uncovers things like how your campaign affected consumer research, interest, product consideration, and opinion development?
  133. Before running a campaign, you’d like to track aided and unaided awareness to understand how your customers perceive your brand. What measurement tool can you use to uncover these data points?
  134. You want to increase awareness among 18- to 34-year-old men. Which of these Brand Lift metrics would you use to see if your campaign is effective?
  135. What is Google Preferred?
  136. Your agency wants to extend your reach by adding YouTube to your TV media spend. What Google measurement solution can help you plan and measure reach and frequency?
  137. Your agency is looking to achieve maximum reach and lift for your video campaign? Which Google products can you use?
  138. Your manager wants to know how Google can help your brand determine how your campaign affected the organic search query volume for related keywords on Google.com and YouTube.com. Which Brand Lift metric can measure that?
  139. YouTube Channel Growth Assessment Answers
  140. What would you typically expect to see in the Watch Time “published” report for a Hub channel?
  141. Which content format is typically associated with a watch time pattern of a spike, followed by a flat curve?
  142. What does the Translations report allow you to do?
  143. Which is not an example of a measurable question that you can ask during a channel assessment?
  144. Why is it important to assess discovery on YouTube?
  145. How can multi-line graphs help distinguish video performance?
  146. How would you find out if different video series have different audiences?
  147. What is an estimated monetized playback (EMP)?
  148. What is the value of a strong call to action to subscribe within a channel trailer?
  149. What action could you take to optimize content if you see a sudden drop in audience retention at the beginning of the video?
  150. What is a reserve ad?
  151. How can reading video comments inform the channel’s content strategy?
  152. If the largest traffic source is external, what opportunity could you take?
  153. Why is it important to identify the traffic sources of subscribers?
  154. Why is it important to look at how many subscribers are gained for each video?
  155. What is a good reason for analyzing a channel’s content strategy?
  156. Which one of the following is not something you would check for when evaluating how thumbnails drive discovery?
  157. Which of the following ad formats typically has the lowest CPMs?
  158. Why is it important to know if a channel’s demographics have changed?
  159. What is the goal of the ad serving model?
  160. What is the difference between reserve and auction ads?
  161. Which of the following is an element of advertiser-friendliness?
  162. What might be used as a channel icon?
  163. Why would you want to review the ratio of views being converted to ads?
  164. What information from YouTube Analytics can help you optimize video metadata?
  165. What information can you include in the channel description to assist unsubscribed viewers?
  166. What metric found in the Cards report can help you evaluate performance?
  167. Which is not one of the metrics suggested for analyzing the Traffic Sources report?
  168. YouTube Content Ownership Assessment Answers
  169. What is a benefit of managing your content with SFTP or the Aspera Dropbox solution?
  170. What is a prerequisite to using SFTP or the Aspera Dropbox delivery method?
  171. What is the benefit of a default usage policy?
  172. How does YouTube help manage the rights for content you upload to the platform?
  173. What are the implications of having the wrong match policy or no policy set on your assets?
  174. Which two policies would enable you to monetize all user-uploaded videos, but make partner-uploaded videos unavailable on your channel?
  175. Which of the following is an asset type?
  176. Why is it important to review potentially invalid reference content?
  177. What three metrics can help you assess performance?
  178. What could happen if you have indistinct content in your reference?
  179. What is an asset composed of?
  180. A user disputes a claim, citing fair use/dealing guidelines. What happens if you select “Release” on this disputed claim?
  181. Which kind of content is eligible as a Content ID reference file?
  182. Which pattern might channels that monetize content often see at the start of a new calendar year?
  183. What option is available to all copyright owners to request removal of infringing content?
  184. If you need advice on an issue related to copyright law, whom should you ask?
  185. How can an administrator exercise control over whether users can see revenue reports?
  186. You have an asset ownership conflict because you accidentally declared ownership for Canada. What should you do?
  187. Which of the following is true of Content ID?
  188. Partner A and Partner B deliver reference files with some overlapping content. On the Reference overlaps page, Partner B selects “Exclude”. What happens to user videos that match only the excluded portion?
  189. A partner decides to block user-uploaded videos. What happens to a user-uploaded video that matches the policy?
  190. How does copyright apply to a movie review video?
  191. What happens if YouTube’s system detects a low confidence match?
  192. You notice someone has uploaded a video to YouTube that you own. What’s required if you wish to request a copyright takedown?
  193. Two partners have a reference overlap. What happens if the second partner to deliver the reference file selects “Assert Exclusive Rights”?
  194. What is a method to create a reference file from a new or unclaimed video?
  195. Why is it important for you to choose references carefully?
  196. What should you do if you find a YouTube video showing harmful or dangerous acts?
  197. Which watch time report will tell you where on the web viewers are finding your content?
  198. How does copyright apply to a cover song?
  199. Copyright protects original work. Which of the following is an example of a video that you may not be able to protect by copyright?
  200. A user disputes a claim, after which you review the video and decide it should be removed from YouTube for using your copyrighted content. What happens if you select “takedown” on this disputed claim?
  201. What is an example of a non-music asset type?
  202. After how many days does a pending claim expire?
  203. Imagine someone uploads a video to YouTube with copyrighted material. If the copyright owner sets a policy to block user uploads, what happens?
  204. Imagine a copyright takedown notice was mistakenly issued for content uploaded to YouTube. Which party may retract the notice?
  205. What form of expression is not subject to copyright?
  206. How can the YouTube Copyright Center help you with copyright?
  207. What legal protection applies to brand names, mottos, and logos?
  208. A copyright takedown has been retracted by the copyright owner. What happens as a result?
  209. While reviewing disputes, you see a disputed claim from an uploader who has obtained a valid license. What should you do?
  210. How can content owners benefit from copyright management on YouTube?
  211. What is a claim?
  212. One of my favorite artists passes away and I want to upload her song in a tribute video. What should I consider first?
  213. What happens if a disputed claim is left in your queue for more than 30 days?
  214. A partner owns the rights to a video in Spain, but not other regions. They upload the video to their YouTube channel, but aren’t sure what settings to apply. What would you recommend they do?
  215. You see a video on YouTube that includes short clips from a copyrighted work. How can you evaluate whether fair use (or fair dealing) applies?
  216. What are the usage rights for music selected from YouTube’s Audio Library?
  217. When should you seek permission to use copyrighted work?
  218. Android Enterprise Platform Associate Exam Answers
  219. What Are The Key Selling Points Regarding Android Enterprise?
  220. What Percentage Of Android Phones Are Free Of Potentially Harmful Apps?
  221. What Feature Of Android Intercepts Malware Threats In Real Time?
  222. With An Android Enterprise Work Profile You Can:
  223. With Managed Google Play, You Can: (Select All That Apply)
  224. __________________ enables large-scale Android deployments across multiple device makers with no manual set up. (fill in the blank)
  225. The feature that gives IT control over company data while allowing workers to keep their pictures and apps private is called:
  226. How many devices does Google Play Protect scan every day?
  227. Which of the following is NOT a security feature of the Android platform?
  228. What percentage of Android devices using Google Play are free of potentially harmful apps?
  229. What are the key selling points regarding Android for enterprise?
  230. Which deployment option allows for bulk company owned devices to be deployed without individual set-up?
  231. Which of the following is true for work applications in the Android for Work profile?
  232. A managed version of the Google Play store for your business allows an organization to:
  233. Android platform security keeps your devices, data and apps secure through:
  234. What percentage of Android phones using Google Play are free of potentially harmful apps?
  235. What Android Feature Are Customers Most Attracted To? (Will Not Count Towards Score) Select All Correct Responses
  236. Campaign Manager Certification Assessment Answers
  237. When dynamic display creatives are published from Studio, what creative type is set in Campaign Manager?
  238. To link a Display & Video 360 advertiser, what initial step must be taken in Campaign Manager?
  239. What cost model only calculates cost for impressions measured as viewable by Active View?
  240. Where are Campaign Manager and Display & Video 360 linked?
  241. When the primary HTML5 assets get delayed, what will serve in a user’s browser as it’s loading?
  242. When would a VPAID asset be used?
  243. For Floodlight tags to properly attribute in-app conversions, what needs to happen within the app?
  244. What happens when a user meets the frequency cap for an ad?
  245. If an Agency Trafficker can only see a subset of active campaigns within their account view, where would a Agency Admin go to adjust access to all campaigns?
  246. Which information can be extracted from the data in the Verification tab? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  247. What does an “execution channel” represent in the Planning process?
  248. What targeting rules display an ad to users who have viewed a product, but not purchased it?
  249. What attribution model uses Floodlight data from both attributed and non-attributed conversions?
  250. In which two tags can the keyword macro (%k) be added? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  251. In a Path to Conversion report, when a user selects to “Pivot On Interaction Path,” what are two major differences from the unpivoted report? (select two)
  252. What is required to track mobile app conversions using Floodlight tags?
  253. Cross-environment conversion methodology takes into account what data sources?
  254. What data is provided in Video Verification?
  255. What timezone is used in Data Transfer (DT) timestamps for impression and click files?
  256. What report shows how long it takes for a customer to convert after interacting with an ad?
  257. What ad setting limits the number of times that ad can be shown to a particular user?
  258. When a Top Conversion Paths report shows that most users enter the purchase cycle with a rich media interaction, what action can be taken to optimize the campaign?
  259. When using a placement media cost cap, what will happen once the cap is reached?
  260. What feature can be used to combine log-level impression and click data for a custom reach analysis?
  261. Which functionalities are available to manage conversion data using the API? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  262. At what level can landing pages be managed across campaigns?
  263. When a “plan” is executed in Planning, what information is pushed to Campaign Manager?
  264. When is an impression counted in Reporting?
  265. What action must occur for a team member to get access to Data Transfer files in Google Cloud Storage?
  266. What account structure should be used to share Floodlight tags and audience lists between multiple Advertisers?
  267. In the Insights tab in Reporting, which two cards show a snapshot of performance? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  268. Which metric is NOT available in Data Transfer?
  269. Where would purchased inventory for a campaign be entered in Campaign Manager?
  270. What is the limit to retrieve log data from a Data Transfer Google Bucket?
  271. Which three workflows can be used to make bulk edits? (select three)
  272. What Floodlight conversion counting method would report the first visit for each user within a given day?
  273. What report tracks Floodlight attribution in Reporting?
  274. Unless default ads are disabled, what campaign trafficking action triggers the automatic creation of a default ad for display placements?
  275. What HTML elements of a Floodlight tag’s iFrame code identify the unique activity?
  276. Which two methods count impressions on site-served creatives? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  277. Where in Campaign Manager can the Site ID(s) required to push placements to Display & Video 360 be found?
  278. What are two benefits of using the INS tag? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  279. What report in Report Builder shows the number of unique users who have interacted with ads?
  280. Paid search dimensions in Report Builder are compatible with what metric?
  281. What is the more cost-effective way to restrict ads served to a specific geographic region?
  282. What are three benefits of using Internal Redirect tags? (select three)
  283. What Settings Are Required To Give A User Reporting Access For A Single Advertiser?
  284. Which two tabs in Reporting provide access to viewability data? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  285. To set ad status to “active,” which two objects must be assigned to an ad? Select All Correct Responses
  286. What section within a Floodlight activity’s settings allows users to add publisher tracking tags?
  287. What Floodlight feature can be used to create a custom audience list that targets customers who purchased a specific product or service?
  288. What counting method tracks the number of sales made or items purchased?
  289. Agency Admin, Agency Trafficker, and Site Trafficker are examples of what?
  290. What level is used to calculate conversions if the lookback window differs between objects?
  291. If a publisher serves a placement tag after the campaign end date, what ad will serve?
  292. At what level can landing pages be set, so they are the same across multiple ads?
  293. What ad setting ensures a qualified user will always be served a city-targeted ad first over a country-targeted ad when both ads are assigned to the same placement?
  294. What must a Floodlight tag include to capture product data alongside a conversion?
  295. What action can be taken to select which columns appear in the trafficking interface?
  296. When assets are added to an existing creative, where will these updates be reflected?
  297. What are two Video Verification metrics? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  298. The Insights tab in Reporting shows the view performance against which three goals? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  299. Counters and Total Interactions metrics are available for which type of creatives?
  300. Which two features may be used to log additional information about a click? (select two)
  301. Which two methods measure impressions served in a mobile app? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  302. Audience lists created in Campaign Manager can be automatically shared with which linked applications? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  303. What object in Campaign Manager is equivalent to a creative in Display & Video 360?
  304. Which conditions must be true in order to designate an advertiser as a “child”? Select All Correct Responses
  305. The “DCM/DFA Trafficking and Reporting API” can directly accomplish which two tasks? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  306. Creative Certification Exam Answers
  307. Echo remarketing uses dynamic content from what source?
  308. Which types of assets can be used in Studio? (select two)
  309. Which two video formats can be built as Rich Media in Studio? (select two)
  310. Which two variables can be used to optimize the rotation of dynamic creatives? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  311. Which two types of creatives either float above a webpage or fill an entire mobile screen? (select two)
  312. Which two targeting types are supported in Studio for dynamic creatives? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  313. Which two settings determine which dynamic content is selected by the ad server to send to the creative? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  314. Which two preview types can be used to generate a dynamic preview? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  315. Which two options must be true to use open optimization? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  316. Which two methods can be used to connect dynamic data to an element in the creative? (select two)
  317. Which two methods can be used to build dynamic creatives for Studio? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  318. Which two data types are NOT supported as dynamic elements? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  319. Which two columns are required in a feed? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  320. Which two capabilities are possible with dynamic preview sheets? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  321. Which two Campaign Manager attributes can be used as filters in a dynamic feed? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  322. Which three rotation settings are available in Studio? (select three)
  323. Which three feed types can be used for importing data into dynamic campaigns in Studio? (select three)
  324. Which three elements are required for a dynamic creative? (select three)
  325. Which three creative types are allowed when using VPAID creatives? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  326. Which three components are available in Google Web Designer? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  327. Where is the dynamic path for an asset found?
  328. Where are dynamic profiles located?
  329. When you have multliple images to support different creative sizes within a single profile, what action should be taken?
  330. When working on a profile with a ranked combination of rules, what feature should be used at the Manage Rules stage?
  331. When using creative dimension filtering, what steps must be taken to generate dynamic previews correctly?
  332. When should the dynamic creative be uploaded to Studio?
  333. When should the code from “Step 4: Generate Code” be called by a hand-coded dynamic creative?
  334. When an asset is selected in the Asset Library, which three attributes appear in the asset Details section? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  335. When a user generates a dynamic preview and receives the error “Can’t show a preview because you haven’t set a default creative or your applied filters don’t match any feed rows,” what first step should be taken to troubleshoot the error?
  336. When a feed contains a column of dynamic clickthrough URLs, what function will a hand-coded creative use?
  337. What’s the most efficient way to target one headline to 10 different audience IDs in a feed?
  338. What values are included in the targeting column of a remarketing feed?
  339. What user access level allows read and write access to create or edit a dynamic profile and feed?
  340. What type of creative appears within a set of borders and doesn’t expand or cover a website’s content?
  341. What tool makes it possible to preview a creative on a mobile device that’s linked to a Studio account?
  342. What steps should be taken under Manage Data to upload a new feed to the Studio profile?
  343. What step must be taken before initiating a fullscreen expansion?
  344. What profile setting allows Studio to match more than one row on impression?
  345. What method for using custom fonts is NOT supported for dynamic text?
  346. What is the proper format for geo-targeting a location in a feed?
  347. What is the minimum number of exits required for a creative?
  348. What is the method most often used to define the dynamic content for a creative?
  349. What is the Asset Library file size limit per upload for video files?
  350. What is the Asset Library file size limit per upload for non-video files?
  351. What field type is used for data pass targeting in a dynamic profile?
  352. What feature can be used to target multiple columns in a feed one at a time?
  353. What feature allows users to create a dynamic field without needing to upload a feed?
  354. What dynamic strategy uses a naming convention to replace numeric Campaign Manager IDs?
  355. What dynamic strategy allows flight scheduling of dynamic creatives?
  356. What does optimization prioritize when used for dynamic creatives?
  357. What do “counters” measure in Studio?
  358. What are two creative elements that can be dynamic? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  359. What are two benefits of using dynamic creatives in Studio? (select two)
  360. What are three benefits of using an existing Google Merchant Center feed for dynamic creatives in Studio? (select three)
  361. What are three benefits of filtering by creative dimensions? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  362. What action occurs when assets are uploaded to the Creative section?
  363. To target multiple Campaign Manager IDs within one cell of a feed, what character is used to separate IDs?
  364. To preview a creative on a blank page, what option should be selected from the dropdown?
  365. To create a dynamic profile, what steps must be taken in the Dynamic Content section?
  366. To build an expanding creative, which three panels must be included in the HTML? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  367. The HTML5 Enabler should be added to which tag in a creative’s HTML file?
  368. In what section of Studio is user access managed?
  369. In what section of Studio can users upload and manage ad files?
  370. In what section of Studio can users create and manage dynamic profiles?
  371. In what section of Studio are creative images and videos stored?
  372. In what product are dynamic targeting keys created?
  373. In the dynamic workflow after managing the data and rules, what is the next step to set up a dynamic creative?
  374. How many Studio profiles can a dynamic creative be linked to?
  375. How can a dynamic preview sheet be removed from a Studio profile?
  376. How can a Studio profile be edited without impacting the live campaign?
  377. Display & Video 360 Certification Exam Answers
  378. Which two views show the revenue and conversion metrics for line items? (select two)
  379. Which two settings can be edited in Campaign Settings? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  380. Which two pacing scenarios represent spend-behavior that’s working as intended? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  381. Which two objectives can be selected as a campaign goal? (select two)
  382. Which two insertion order and line item settings are required? (select two)
  383. Which three settings could prevent deals from meeting their ad-serving goals? (select three)
  384. Which exchanges have their own creative audit process?
  385. Which environments and inventory sources cannot run within a single line item?
  386. Which campaign setting impacts how the associated insertion orders deliver?
  387. Which ad formats cannot be assigned to a single line item? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  388. Which ad format supports pre-bid verification with Integral Ad Science?
  389. Where can an advertiser set their campaign goal?
  390. Where can a preferred deal be assigned?
  391. Where are video ads hosted for a TrueView campaign?
  392. When users make changes to a line item or insertion order, where are those changes displayed?
  393. When targeting a private deal with a news publisher that constantly refreshes the text on the page, which targeting should be avoided?
  394. When is a “view” counted for TrueView campaigns?
  395. When creating new video line items, what are two execution methods that save time? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  396. When creating a new TrueView campaign, how long should be allocated for creative review?
  397. What timezone is applied to inline charts and metrics data?
  398. What steps should be taken at the Advertiser level to run TrueView?
  399. What step would be taken to verify that conversion pixels are implemented and load correctly?
  400. What step would an advertiser take to target a list of email addresses?
  401. What step should be taken to view performance data for targeted audience segments?
  402. What step should be taken to track and secure a programmatic deal with a publisher?
  403. What step should be taken to determine which creatives had the lowest eCPM over the last month?
  404. What step should be taken to configure a Programmatic Guaranteed deal once negotiations are complete?
  405. What step should be taken to assign an advertiser to a preferred deal when creating a new inventory source?
  406. What step should an advertiser take to exclude sensitive categories using a supported third-party verification tool?
  407. What should be used to investigate why a line item isn’t winning the majority of qualifying open auction impressions?
  408. What report shows the number of unique users for a specific website?
  409. What report can identify when a campaign overspent the budget?
  410. What report can help verify if pixels load correctly on a webpage?
  411. What percentage of the daily budget is applied when using “Ahead” pacing?
  412. What line items are impacted by insertion order default targeting?
  413. What is the result of using a VPAID tag instead of a VAST tag when running video ads?
  414. What is the difference between Programmatic Guaranteed deals and preferred deals?
  415. What is the correct Display & Video 360 account hierarchy?
  416. What is required for creative approval?
  417. What is one way to control ad frequencies across multiple insertion orders?
  418. What is one benefit of applying “auto budget allocation” to an insertion order’s budget settings?
  419. What is a benefit of linking a YouTube channel to the advertiser in Display & Video 360?
  420. What inventory sources allow for exclusive publisher partnerships?
  421. What insertion order settings must be set before a campaign can go live?
  422. What hierarchy levels are required to permission and link a YouTube channel to run TrueView?
  423. What format cannot share a frequency cap with other media formats?
  424. What feature allows users to adjust fixed bids for different geographies or device types?
  425. What environment supports proximity targeting?
  426. What does an audit status of “Pending, servable” mean?
  427. What data cannot be evaluated with a Standard or General performance report?
  428. What are two ways to troubleshoot a non-spending line item? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  429. What are two ways to make bulk changes within Display & Video 360 campaigns? Select All Correct Responses
  430. What are two ways to check why a private deal is not running? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  431. What are two Google Audiences? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  432. What ad format cannot run with Even pacing set on the insertion order?
  433. To send data from Campaign Manager to Display & Video 360, what initial step should be taken?
  434. To optimize the campaign towards viewability, which two approaches can an advertiser take? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  435. To duplicate a line item, what steps must be taken?
  436. To activate the creative approvals process for a new creative, what step must be taken?
  437. To access a first-party audience list from a Floodlight tag in Display & Video 360, what step should be taken in Campaign Manager?
  438. How would you add third-party verification to a creative when Campaign Manager is your ad server?
  439. How is the daily budget calculated for an insertion order with Flight Even pacing?
  440. How does the setup for a Programmatic Guaranteed deal differ from a preferred deal?
  441. How can an advertiser be granted access to TrueView inventory?
  442. How can a site be blacklisted from an advertiser’s media buys?
  443. How can a profit margin be applied to the revenue metric?
  444. How can a line item’s potential reach be increased from 1K to 1M targeted impressions?
  445. How can a group of URLs be excluded across advertisers?
  446. How can a creative be submitted for audit after it’s been rejected and fixed?
  447. How can a campaign be activated after creating it?
  448. How are line items affected when a user edits the default targeting for insertion orders?
  449. How are creatives assigned to a line item?
  450. For deals, which tool can be used to identify if the correct creative sizes are sent with the bid request?
  451. At what levels can pacing be set?
  452. Search Ads 360 Certification Exam Answers
  453. Which two user types can activate the conversion API? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  454. Which two types of uploads can be made through an sFTP endpoint? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  455. Which two types of goals can be targeted in Bid Strategies? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  456. Which two types of campaigns do bid strategy opportunities analyze? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  457. Which two segments CANNOT be applied to reporting data? (select two)
  458. Which two methods can be used to send an Executive report to a user with no access to Search Ads 360? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  459. Which two methods can be used to pass conversion attributes such as model type, color, and year of production through a Floodlight activity? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  460. Which two filters are available in the change history report? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  461. Which two features may be used to upload offline conversion data to a Search Ads 360 keyword ID? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  462. Which two conversion sources can be selected in bid strategies? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  463. Which two conversion sources can be reported in custom columns? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  464. Which two constraints can an advertiser select on their conversion-based bid strategies? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  465. Which two column categories appear in formula columns? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  466. Which two changes does an advertiser manager have permission to make to an advertiser account? (select two)
  467. Which three requirements must be met to run a successful ad copy test? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  468. Which three modifiers can be automated by a bid strategy? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  469. Which three landing page tests are available in Search Ads 360? (select three)
  470. Which three items can a bid strategy consider when optimizing the performance of a bidding portfolio as a whole? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  471. Which three frequencies can be scheduled for reports? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  472. Which three features can be used to integrate offline conversion data? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  473. Which three features can a call-tracking partner use to send data to Search Ads 360? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  474. Which three engines are supported by the Search Ads 360 API? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  475. Which three changes can a user set up using scheduled edits? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  476. Which three URLs are involved in a landing page test? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  477. Which level’s settings CANNOT be edited with bulksheets? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  478. Which attribute may be used to upload paid search offline conversions via the Campaign Manager API?
  479. Where can a saved web query be found?
  480. When setting a CPA, ERS, or ROAS target for a bid strategy, how much conversion history should be considered?
  481. When a reporting view is saved, who has access to the view?
  482. When a Search Ads 360 advertiser is linked to Campaign Manager, which product sets the timezone?
  483. When a Search Ads 360 advertiser is added with a different currency than the linked Campaign Manager advertiser, which product sets the currency for that Search Ads 360 advertiser?
  484. When Campaign Manager isn’t used as the ad server, what should Search Ads 360 advertisers link to in Campaign Manager?
  485. What type of bid strategy is supported by the forecasting tool?
  486. What two Floodlight activity group types can be set up? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  487. What step would be taken to check if an inventory management template has created any entities?
  488. What setting should be applied to a Floodlight tag passing offline conversion data?
  489. What permissions are needed to create an advertiser?
  490. What occurs when auto-tagging is enabled?
  491. What metrics estimate conversions that measure user behavior across devices and environments?
  492. What level should be used to evaluate performance of a bid strategy?
  493. What is the default attribution model for Floodlight?
  494. What is the Search Ads 360 account hierarchy?
  495. What is shown in the “Last sync” details tab? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  496. What happens when an engine is paused?
  497. What function do ValueTrack parameters perform?
  498. What feature provides audience lists to Display & Video 360 or Google Ads based on search clicks recorded by Search Ads 360?
  499. What feature may be used to report on a specific Floodlight conversion?
  500. What feature may be used to edit custom Floodlight variable data?
  501. What feature is used to track unsupported ad types that specify their own landing page or Google Display Network and Gmail promoted campaigns?
  502. What does it mean when the “Stop sync” button is greyed out?
  503. What could prevent Inventory Management from making changes to a campaign?
  504. What conversion data can be uploaded using bulksheets?
  505. What configuration setting eliminates duplicate conversions between advertisers?
  506. What bid strategy goal should be used to create a custom strategy with multiple ERS, ROAS, and CPA targets?
  507. What attribution model assigns all credit to the last click on a paid search ad before a conversion?
  508. What are two key differentiators in functionality between labels and business data? Select All Correct Responses
  509. What action should be used to pass a conversion attribute (such as shipping cost)?
  510. What Floodlight tag measures purchases and revenue on a website?
  511. In what order should new entities be created (assuming no campaigns already exist)?
  512. If bids on keywords in a bid strategy are manually overwritten, how long will it take for the bid strategy to resume bidding on those keywords?
  513. If an engine account is set to a different timezone than an advertiser, in which timezone will Floodlight metrics appear when scoped to the advertiser level?
  514. If an engine account is set to a different currency than an advertiser, metrics will appear in what currency when scoped to the engine level?
  515. How often is Google Ads, Bing Ads, and Baidu data refreshed in Search Ads 360?
  516. During the first week of an active bid strategy, which two changes can potentially impact the learning period? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  517. Data Exclusion events exclude data for a minimum of how many hours?
  518. Campaigns can only be copied within the same engine account for which two engines? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  519. Bulksheets can be used to complete which two tasks? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  520. At which two levels can URL Templates be set up? (select two) Select All Correct Responses
  521. At which three levels can bid strategies be applied? (select three)
  522. At which three levels can automated rules be set up? (select three) Select All Correct Responses
  523. Measurement – Smart Assessment Answers
  524. YouTube is the second most viewable video destination globally.
  525. Why is it not advisable for an advertiser to have a tag set to conditional firing in Google Ads Conversion Tracking?
  526. Why is it not advisable for an advertiser to have a tag set to conditional firing in AdWords Conversion Tracking?
  527. Which platform type can an advertiser use to track time spent on their site?
  528. What’s the most effective way for an advertiser to get the most out of Google Analytics and AdWords?
  529. What’s the most effective way for an advertiser to get the most out of Analytics and Google Ads?
  530. What solution is best suited for large companies looking to invest in enterprise analytics solutions that give them guaranteed reporting uptimes and more recent, unlimited raw data?
  531. What is the industry-leading 3P solution that can be compared to Unique Reach?
  532. What is the DoubleCIick advertiser ad server called?
  533. What is a key value proposition of Unique Reach?
  534. What can be done to make sure Active View metrics are available for a YouTube campaign?
  535. What are the three key steps to enable accurate measurement of the user journey?
  536. What are the three different stages of customer interactions defined within a funnel in Google Analytics?
  537. What are the three different stages of customer interactions defined within a funnel in Analytics?
  538. Viewability guarantees that a client’s ad will be seen.
  539. Using Google Analytics 360, an advertiser can turn measurement into action by creating audience lists for future targeting.
  540. Three of the following feature statements are true about Tag Manager. Identify the feature that is false.
  541. Three of the following feature statements are true about Google Tag Manager. Identify the feature that is false.
  542. Select the platform that allows advertisers to combine data feeds for reporting and visualization.
  543. Select the best Google tool for website A/B testing.
  544. Select the Google products that collect data and measure actions in websites or apps. Select all that apply. Select All Correct Responses
  545. Rules-based attribution takes only converting paths into account.
  546. Place in order the steps involved in building a data-driven attribution model for Search ads.
  547. Match the Analytics and Google Ads measurement terminology to the description.
  548. Match each of the following terms to the corresponding goal
  549. In a data-driven attribution model, how can an advertiser understand the impact of any given keyword in a conversion path?
  550. Identify the definition of attribution.
  551. Identify ALL of the platforms that offer attribution analysis.
  552. Google Analytics 360 is the free, entry-level analytics platforms.
  553. Differentiate between measurement and attribution.
  554. Attribution 360 can help advertisers see the impact of their TV campaigns.
  555. Advertisers can import their campaign data from DCM into GA360.
  556. A “Conversion” is specifically defined as a purchase influenced by an ad.
  557. Performance – Smart Assessment Answers
  558. With UAC, we recommend setting a CPA bid using the average CLV of a customer who completes the ‘Success Action’
  559. Why should an advertiser consider automated bidding? Select all that apply. Select All Correct Responses
  560. Why is Target CPA the recommended choice for a remarketing bidding solution?
  561. Why do search ad extensions matter to clients?
  562. Which settings should be removed to optimize a remarketing campaign performance?
  563. Which policies apply when recommending RLSA? Select all that apply. Select All Correct Responses
  564. Which part of the search ad is not automatically generated by DSA?
  565. Which option allows advertisers to use their list in an existing campaign by applying a bid adjustment to modify their remarketing list members?
  566. Which of these statements are TRUE? Select all that apply.
  567. Which of these customers likely has the highest potential value to bid on when searching for flowers?
  568. Which of the following user trends is NOT a rationale for advertisers to use DSA?
  569. Which of the following targeting options is NOT available in Gmail?
  570. Which of the following statements is true?
  571. Which of the following signal is currently NOT used by our algorithm to set up bids automatically?
  572. Which of the following is not considered a “Smart Bidding” strategy?
  573. Which of the following is a core benefit of AdWords autobidding?
  574. Which of the following best practices should be followed when applying target CPA to a campaign? Select All Correct Responses
  575. Which of the following allows advertisers to test out new keywords or ad copy that will serve only to specific audience members?
  576. Which list size metric should be examined to see if a list can be actively used in RLSA?
  577. Which attributes describe a good landing page experience? Select all that apply. Select All Correct Responses
  578. When should a max conversions bidding strategy be pitched?
  579. When calculating customer value, other valuable actions, such as friend referral should not be included.
  580. What is the recommended range of lists to apply to ensure that management and reporting is not overly difficult?
  581. What is the minimum list size for search required to run RLSA?
  582. What is the difference between a “Success Action” and a “Proxy Action”?
  583. What is dynamic remarketing?
  584. What is automatically included in AdWords optimized lists?
  585. What does GDN’s inventory include? Select All Correct Responses
  586. What can be customized with audience signals to make the acquisition of website visitors more efficient and ensure that users who are searching are re-acquired before they visit any competitor sites?
  587. What are the three universal ad extensions that every marketer should be using to enhance their text ad?
  588. What are the three main factors that determine ad quality?
  589. What are the three key benefits of RLSA?
  590. What are some broad revenue generators in an app?
  591. What are prohibited categories you should avoid pitching RLSA to?
  592. Sort the following ways to target a client’s website with DSA, from the largest coverage to the most narrow.
  593. Since DSA is an automation solution, there’s no need to add audience lists to the campaign.
  594. RLSA lists should start with all site visitors. Further segments can follow the advertiser’s website structure, which usually groups visitors at various stages in the conversion cycle.
  595. Put the following steps in order to show how static display remarketing works.
  596. Put the following steps in order to describe how RLSA works.
  597. Order the four steps used to maximize an advertisers investment in RLSA.
  598. Match the recommended option to tag your advertisers GDN remarketing campaigns to the Google product.
  599. Match the following autobidding strategy to the right client objective.
  600. Match the client’s objective to the DSA solution.
  601. Match the client goal to the correct ad extension.
  602. Match the appropriate solution to the client’s issue when investgating internal factors in the client’s AdWords account.
  603. Match examples of app activities to the corresponding vertical.
  604. Match each recommended display auto-bidding strategy to its corresponding lead client.
  605. Match each of the “Big Three” ad rank recommendations to their definition.
  606. Match each of the following statements to its corresponding DSA benefit.
  607. Match each explanation to its key benefit of using display responsive ads in a remarketing campaign.
  608. Match each display targeting solution to its targeted audience.
  609. Match each autobidding strategy to the right campaign goal.
  610. It’s important to wait at least two weeks after implementation before measuring the results of a Smart Bidding campaign.
  611. Indicate one difference on conversion tracking between iOS apps and Android apps.
  612. Including a logo in a responsive ad…
  613. If an advertiser wants to maximize performance and also has branding guidelines, what would be a good recommendation?
  614. If an advertiser wants to cover generic keywords or seasonal keywords that they normally couldn’t afford with RLSA, what is the best recommendation?
  615. If a client wants to add a layer of auction-time optimization to their 3rd-party autobidding system, what autobidding strategy should they use?
  616. Identify which remarketing solution you would use for each scenario.
  617. Identify when it is appropriate to use target and bid for targeting in the new AdWords experience.
  618. Identify how UAC uses Machine Learning.
  619. How should you pitch your clients on ad formats if they are using image or HTML5 ads today?
  620. How should an advertiser exercise control over DSA campaigns?
  621. How many extension types can show up in any given ad auction?
  622. How can you improve Quality Score?
  623. Google users can visit the Ads Preferences Manager to manage ad personalization.
  624. Gmail targeting includes signals from which of the following? Select All Correct Responses
  625. Explain what “observations” are in the new AdWords experience.
  626. DSA is fully compatible with target CPA, and it’s a best practice to combine this smart bidding option with DSA.
  627. Platforms – Smart Assessment Answers
  628. Which type of ad format matches the look and feel of a publisher’s site/app?
  629. Which tool allows marketers to aggregate, action, and analyze their data to inform their audience targeting strategy?
  630. Which platform should publishers use to sell their inventory in an online marketplace?
  631. Which platform should publishers use to define the areas of their website that they can sell as ad space?
  632. Which one of these companies offers a competitor to DoubleClick Search?
  633. Which of the following is the online marketplace for the buying and selling of programmatic ads?
  634. Which of the following does DoubleClick Studio help advertisers do?
  635. Which conversion types can DoubleClick Search pull in?
  636. Which Google audience captures users who have demonstrated a qualified and recent interest in a given topic?
  637. What’s the term for when publisher ad servers are used to upload the creative from advertisers?
  638. What’s the name of Google’s search management platform?
  639. What’s the best definition for programmatic?
  640. What’s another term for the publisher side of media transactions?
  641. What’s Google’s creative HTML authoring tool called?
  642. What should an advertiser use to track digital campaigns across channels?
  643. What reason would a customer want to use GDN over DBM?
  644. What platform allows advertisers to gather valuable insights into how users interact with their site or application?
  645. What is a type of data aggregated from a variety of suppliers and then curated into targetable segments?
  646. What is Google’s solution for deploying pixels across a website?
  647. What is Google’s enterprise solution for tracking website engagement?
  648. What is Google’s creative platform for building dynamic creative?
  649. What is Google’s advertiser ad server called?
  650. What is Google’s DSP?
  651. What does “DSP” stands for?
  652. Using both DFP and AdX allows publishers to use advanced features such as dynamic allocation.
  653. This type of Google audience is composed of users who are actively intending to buy certain products or services in the near future or have a high propensity to buy if they find the right product or offer.
  654. Some clients use both the AdWords and DS interface.
  655. Search management platforms only access search engines and don’t offer social or display functionality.
  656. Point players allow advertisers to pass assets seamlessly between platforms.
  657. Personally identifiable information (PII data) such as name, email, phone number and mailing address are examples of third-party data.
  658. In a programmatic auction, the winning bidder is the one with the highest score when the quality score and bid are combined.
  659. Identify the type of ad format that is typically full screen and covers the whole real estate, typically in mobile app.
  660. Identify the interface where publishers log-in to control their campaigns and report on performance.
  661. How would DoubleClick Bid Manager best be classified?
  662. How does programmatic benefit advertisers?
  663. Google has an affiliate marketing platform.
  664. Google Web Designer allows clients to author custom, interactive HTML5 creative.
  665. First-party data is defined as data owned by the advertiser and collected from online and offline sources.
  666. DoubleClick’s sell-side solutions benefit from being integrated with the buy-side solutions.
  667. DoubleClick Search is designed to have a similar look and feel to AdWords.
  668. DoubleClick Search allows advertisers to import data from non-Google search engines.
  669. DoubleClick Search allows advertisers to import conversions from multiple sources such as DoubleClick and Google Analytics.
  670. DoubleClick Search allows advertisers to control their organic listings.
  671. DoubleClick Search allows advertisers to buy media on Facebook and Twitter.
  672. DoubleClick Campaign Manager allows advertisers to build rich, interactive ads.
  673. DoubleClick Bid Manager is restricted to buying Google Media.
  674. DBM is the only demand side platform with access to YouTube’s TrueView format
  675. Criteo is an example of a point player.
  676. By default, DoubleClick Search will favor Google inventory.
  677. Appnexus is an example of a stack player.
  678. AppNexus is a competitor to DoubleClick Bid Manager.
  679. An advertiser is using Google Analytics 360 can use first-party, Google Audiences, and DoubleClick audience data.
  680. AdX inventory is exclusive to GDN and DBM.
  681. A trading desk is the same as a demand side platform.
  682. A publisher’s most valuable asset is the audience it has access to.
  683. A publisher ad server allows publishers to conduct which of following activities?
  684. Video – Smart Assessment Answers
  685. YouTube for Performance allows advertisers to optimize towards lower-funnel actions, aside from driving cost efficient views.
  686. With consumers consulting dozens of resources in varying sequences before making a purchase, it is impossible to attribute conversions from people who viewed an ad on their YouTube mobile app then converted on their mobile web browser or on a different device.
  687. Which type of advertiser would find bumpers to be a good solution for their objective?
  688. Which of the following describes YouTube for performance?
  689. Which objective is met by data showing that longer watchtime leads to improved brand metrics?
  690. Which ad format typically has the lowest CPM among in-stream video ads and is also eligible to serve more frequently, particularly on mobile devices?
  691. Where does a YouTube Masthead ad unit run?
  692. When using TrueView for action, advertisers need to choose between implementing a headline or a call-to-action.
  693. What type of advertiser is a good fit for YouTube for Performance (YT4P)?
  694. What is the easiest way for users to update their own interests?
  695. What YouTube platform innovation is a subscription-based video and music experience, where users can watch videos free of ads, as well as save videos to watch offline on mobile devices?
  696. TrueView in-stream video views count towards an advertiser’s total YouTube view count.
  697. TrueView for action is a non-skippable video ad on YouTube that is always bought on a CPV basis.
  698. This ad product can appear on the YouTube homepage, watch pages, or search results pages.
  699. Store Visits for YouTube allows you to measure how YouTube ads influence offline visits.
  700. Standard Reserve is billed on a cost-per-view pricing model.
  701. Outstream video ads serve within a video stream.
  702. Outstream ads are forced impressions.
  703. Outstream ads are billed on a viewable CPM.
  704. In which of the following scenarios would you NOT recommend using conversion lift for YouTube?
  705. Identify the platform innovation that takes users on an augmented adventure, immersing them in a simple, premium mobile experience.
  706. How many sites does a user need to go to before they’re considered a “sports enthusiast” by Google?
  707. How does TrueView for action differ from standard TrueView in-stream?
  708. How are Store Visits for YouTube attributed?
  709. Google updates audience segment data on a yearly basis.
  710. Detailed Demographic targeting on YouTube leverages Google Search and Maps Search signals.
  711. Custom Intent Audiences allow advertisers to reach users on YouTube that were previously searching for particular queries across which of the following properties?
  712. An advertiser is considering TrueView for action. In order for their performance to be as effective as possible, which of following requirements should be met?
  713. An advertiser has never used YouTube as a performance platform before and is looking to set up their first campaign. Which of the following expectations should you set? Select all that apply. Select All Correct Responses
  714. A mattress client wants to reach people on YouTube who are about to move to a new home. What is the best targeting solution for the client?
  715. A luxury travel agency is looking to target their new package trips to Mauritius to audiences who are researching destination guides on YouTube. Which type of targeting would you recommend?
  716. A fast food chain wants to reach people on YouTube who frequently dine out for breakfast. What is the best targeting solution for the client?
  717. A credit card client wants to find new, high-value customers using their data. What is the best audience solution?
  718. A client wants to reach people who are searching for content about the Chicago Bulls basketball team. Which targeting option would you recommend?
  719. A client wants to reach people who are passionate about beauty. What is the best targeting solution?
  720. A client wants to reach F18-34. Which targeting option would you recommend?
  721. A client wants to re-engage with people in their CRM database that have bought something from the website in the past six months. What is the best targeting solution?
  722. A client wants to leverage the popularity of content creators as part of their influencer strategy to build greater loyalty. What resource would help them understand who the most popular creators are within their market?
  723. A client is planning a new product launch on the final day of a major tennis tournament and wants massive reach over a short period of time. Which ad product would allow this to happen?
  724. A client is looking to own the football category on YouTube for the launch of their new line of athletic shoes, reaching males 18-49. As part of this campaign launch, they’ve developed ads that are 45-seconds long. Which ad product addresses the client’s needs?
  725. A brand wants to know how they can benefit from the popularity of YouTube creators. Choose the best response.
  726. A beauty advertiser wants a consistent presence in the beauty and fashion category, especially when viewers are searching for educational and how-to videos. Which ad product would best serve their needs?
  727. 95% of the videos on YouTube are watched with the sound on.
  728. Waze Local Fundamentals Assessment Answers
  729. Zero-Speed Takeover displays ads when drivers ________?
  730. Which additional ad format does Waze Local Plus offer?
  731. Which Waze offering is a data exchange program that offers Waze vital insights on proposed road closures and detours?
  732. Which Agency Partner service level requires Advanced Certification and a minimum quarterly investment?
  733. What type of additional support do Waze Preferred Partners receive?
  734. What is the newest Waze offering?
  735. What is the minimum investment requirement for Preferred Partners?
  736. What is the Waze key user benefit?
  737. What is our company’s mission statement?
  738. What does the Waze Dashboard allow you to do?
  739. What does Promoted Search offer?
  740. What do all three ad formats help small and medium-sized businesses or national brands seeking localized campaigns achieve?
  741. What do Waze Local ads offer that traditional OOH and billboards lack?
  742. What can advertising on Waze Local help small and medium-sized businesses or national brands seeking localized campaigns achieve?
  743. What business information do Branded Pins provide when a user clicks on them?
  744. What additional features are in the Plus dashboard?
  745. Wazers with 2 to 4 people in their household make up what percentage of overall users?
  746. Pricing for both Starter and Plus is based upon what type of model?
  747. Pricing for Waze Local Starter begins at as little as $ ____/day, while Waze Local Plus starts at $____/day?
  748. On which platform can small and medium-sized businesses or national brands seeking localized campaigns advertise?
  749. On which of the following popular branding platforms do people spend the most in-app time per month, on average?
  750. On average, what navigational increase do businesses experience when they advertise on Waze Local?
  751. Nearly half (46%) of all Waze users have a yearly household income of what amount?
  752. Name the level(s) of Waze Agency partnership?
  753. More than what percentage of drivers using Waze are between 25 and 54 years old?
  754. Insights and data allow Waze Local to effectively target drivers by knowing what?
  755. In what year did Google acquire Waze?
  756. In 2017, more than ______ drivers visited local businesses in the U.S. advertising on Waze?
  757. If you plan to spend less than $100/day, which solution is most suitable for your business?
  758. How many times per day do drivers feel they must use Waze in order to pass “The Toothbrush Test”??
  759. How many people use Waze around the world?
  760. How many hours per month do Wazers average on the app?
  761. How does the Waze Dashboard define the Navigations performance metric?
  762. How do you calculate an Ad’s Click-Through Rate (CTR)?
  763. How are Waze routes developed to be as efficient as possible?
  764. Almost ⅓ of the Wazers you reach on Waze Local live within how many miles of your business?
  765. Waze Local Advanced Assessment Answers
  766. Which of the following is NOT considered a user Action in the Waze Dashboards?
  767. Which file type(s) can you use for your Waze Local ad Creative?
  768. When designing Waze Local ads, all brand messaging and creative assets should be _______?
  769. What types of aggregated performance reports can you receive in the Waze Local Plus Dashboard?
  770. What types of account management capabilities does the Waze Local Starter Dashboard offer?
  771. What should you consider to write a high-impact, aligned CTA for your Waze Local ad?
  772. What do the Waze Dashboards allow you to do?
  773. What are among the top advertiser categories on Waze Local?
  774. What additional performance tracking metrics does the Waze Local Plus Dashboard include?
  775. What account management capabilities does the Waze Local Plus Dashboard offer?
  776. Waze users spend how many minutes per day, two to three times per day on the app?
  777. Waze Local’s “billboards with a digital backbone”? reach drivers where?
  778. To whom do we offer custom Creative for Waze Local campaigns?
  779. In designing your Waze Local Creative, you’re encouraged to think of your Waze ads as which of the following?
  780. If a client wanted to reach drivers for a Wednesday afternoon only campaign, could they do this?
  781. Copy for Waze Local campaigns should follow a recommended character limit of _______?
  782. Deploying Jamboards Assessment Answers
  783. Who from the customer side will need to be on-site to provision each Jamboard?
  784. Which of the following would you do before leaving the customer site?
  785. Which of the following is the only acceptable method for cleaning the display?
  786. Which of the following guidelines should be followed when providing a custom Premium White Glove Service offering?
  787. When should a Jamboard be connected through a proxy?
  788. When connecting to the Internet for an initial update, what type of network types are available out of the box?
  789. What type of licenses does the customer need to have in order to set up and use Jamboard correctly?
  790. What position should the wheel lock buttons be when in a locked state?
  791. What is the best way to tell that the display was hung correctly?
  792. What happens if a customer purchases a Jamboard without the stand, but does purchase the basic installation service?
  793. What are all the ways to invite collaborators to a Jam?
  794. True or False: The recommended download speed for best Jamboard experience is 4 Mbps per second, it will function at lower speeds but latency may occur.
  795. The longer set of legs will have a locking mechanism on the wheels and face towards the back.
  796. Select the response that best reflects the wall mounting process:
  797. If needed, how do you factory reset a Jamboard?
  798. How is access control on a Jamboard determined?
  799. How do you access the diagnostic tool?
  800. Selling Jamboards Assessment Answers
  801. Which is required to enroll a Jamboard?
  802. Which are examples of great use cases for using Jamboards?
  803. Where does a Jam session save to?
  804. What technology is integrated into the Jamboard Stylus?
  805. What screen size is the Jamboard offered in?
  806. What is the list price of Jamboard?
  807. What is something the physical Jamboard can do that the Jamboard app cannot?
  808. What is something the Jamboard app can do that a physical Jamboard cannot?
  809. What does a Jamboard License cover?
  810. What benefits does a Jamboard offer in the enterprise collaboration space?
  811. How much does a Jamboard License Cost?
  812. Activate customer-centric marketing Assessment Answers
  813. Your manager thinks the detail you’ve used in your customer portraits isn’t necessary. What should you do next?
  814. You work for a perfume company and identified a customer portrait for young, working moms who are fans of organic, natural products. How would you target them during the “Think” stage of See, Think, Do, Care?
  815. The other day you were searching for electronic music schools and visited some related sites. A few days later you were curious about how many calories were in the curry rice you had at lunch and searched “calories in curry rice”. You landed on a site with nutritional tips and noticed a display ad for an electronic music school. You decide to click on it. What signal was likely used to target you with this ad?
  816. Imagine you were explaining how to stay relevant in the digital ecosystem. What would be the most important point to get across?
  817. To capture the “Do” stage for a marketing campaign selling men’s razors, you invited users who watched your entire pre-roll ad to sign up for a newsletter on male grooming trends. The results were dismal. Why?
  818. What would be the best format and message for a women’s clothing retailer in the “Do” stage?
  819. Imagine you created a sponsored post for your target audience. The post linked to a detailed side-by-side comparison of your product suite. You noticed that you received very little traffic. What principle would you need to strengthen?
  820. What is the risk to a brand if it wants to be everything to every possible customer?
  821. You received some feedback that your team thinks you missed some vital micro-moments. What do you do to find the ones you missed?
  822. What would you recommend for a company that wasn’t yet clear who their target is or their unique benefit?
  823. Louise, who works for a computer company, sent her loyal customers and brand fans a display ad with this message: “For your first purchase, get a discount” display ad. Why didn’t this work?
  824. What is the main difference between a traditional campaign brief and a digital-first one?
  825. Why is a digital-first brief an important part of the campaign process?
  826. You’ve been asked to identify micro-moments for a new automotive client. Where do you start?
  827. Choose the right mobile asset Assessment Answers
  828. How to find mobile customers Assessment Answers
  829. Make engaging mobile messages Assessment Answers
  830. Measure mobile effectively Assessment Answers
  831. Measure your customer-centric marketing Assessment Answers
  832. Prepare for a programmatic world Assessment Answers
  833. Programmable marketing basics Assessment Answers
  834. Your friend has a jewelry business and just created an app that had dismal downloads during its first month. What advice should you give to get the app back on track?
  835. Which is not a good app design practice?
  836. Which is not a common barrier for mobile-first companies?
  837. Which asset model would you recommend to a company who already has a successful mobile site?
  838. You’ve been given free reign to create a mobile-first campaign and a healthy budget to invest in mobile assets. What are the first steps you should take to get started?
  839. You’re a marketing manager for a leading online music store and have been given a new key performance indicator (KPI) to hit this quarter: sell 25 percent more units of electronica artists month over month. What mobile engagement would you recommend to achieve this goal?
  840. Your manager asked you to give more consideration to a user’s location. What kind of signals would you look at?
  841. Why should companies adopt mobile-first thinking?
  842. Your data is showing that mobile isn’t performing well. However, you know from a focus group that users are using mobile early in their journey and that mobile isn’t getting the credit it deserves. What mobile engagement and conversion strategy do you suggest to ensure mobile gets proper credit?
  843. You just received disappointingly low results from an awareness campaign for a local non-profit that you managed. You did your research and used a wide array of signals to make sure you got your answers to your micro-moments right. What will you try next time?
  844. Imagine an intern asked you about contextual and intent-rich signals. What would you say?
  845. You’re surfing some of your social media sites and the exact same electronic music school advertisement from earlier in the day appears. Earlier, you clicked on the ad, but this time you don’t. What could have been done to be more relevant in that micro-moment?
  846. Which of the following isn’t a sensor?
  847. If your fashion retail client wanted an app that gave users the same experience as a runway model performing a show, what would you be creating?
  848. What would be the best way to explain what a sensor is to a new intern at your company?
  849. In a push to lift your company’s brand reputation, you created a game that your clients could play to earn store credit. What would be the purpose of an app like this?
  850. What are the best sensors to use if you wanted to make an app that lets users virtually experience a new car?
  851. What are the best sensors to use to send a discount offer to someone walking past your retail outlet?
  852. What are the key sensors involved in viewing 360 degree video?
  853. You are working on a campaign for a bike courier company who wants to provide meaningful utility to their customers. What do you recommend?
  854. What would be the best key performance indicator for a coffee company that just opened and is trying to attract a new clientele in the “Think” stage?
  855. Which marketing currency is commonly associated with the “Care” stage?
  856. If you wanted to understand if the impressions you purchased were actually seen by customers, what measurement concept would you ask to know more about?
  857. Jenni sells custom-printed t-shirts and knows that customers begin their journey online with research on their mobile devices and end up making most purchases using their desktop. Her measurement report shows that mobile had no impact. What would you recommend to solve this measurement problem?
  858. Each month, Tracy received separate reports from her display, mobile, search, and video teams. Analyzing the data was super tough. What solution would you recommend?
  859. If you wanted to see how a consumer journey moves across devices, what method would be best?
  860. What experiment would be best to answer this question: How effective is video advertising at driving sales in offline stores?
  861. When using surveys to measure brand health in the digital ecosystem, what is the preferred methodology?
  862. In an effort to test something new, Peter’s team ran a new display campaign alongside their video and search ads. After the test phase, the marketing director complained about an increase in their digital marketing spend due to adding a new type of campaign. What did they forget to take into account?
  863. Which would be the best behavior to confirm that you’re relevant in this micromoment: “I-want-to-visit-Berlin”?
  864. What experiment would be best to answer this question: How effective is mobile video at driving website visits?
  865. Which key performance indicator (KPI) would not be relevant to a schnitzel restaurant?
  866. Which would be the best key performance indicator (KPI) for this micro-moment: “I-want-to-try-schnitzel”?
  867. Rose sees in her data that many of the people that converted were exposed to a display campaign she ran. So she concludes the display campaign was a success. What did she forget to take into account?
  868. What measurement strategy would be best for an independent local cake shop that is trying to link a mobile promotion to increased offline sales?
  869. Which of the following isn’t a tool to help you better assess mobile’s performance?
  870. Which of the following couldn’t be answered with a controlled marketing experiment?
  871. Your research tells you that customers start searching for your products with their smartphone, yet you don’t see mobile doing well in your data. What is a good way to fix that problem?
  872. Which estimator would work best at linking cross-channel conversions from mobile to offline store?
  873. Your company sells eyeglasses and sold 10 percent more than its target for desktop sales. Mobile’s paid search and display ads drove lots of mobile site traffic, yet that traffic doesn’t seem to convert well. Which is the best recommendation to find out whether mobile played a role in driving desktop success?
  874. All but one of the below roles would be great to have in place and help boost the programmatic capability of your team. Which one is it?
  875. You’ve been building a programmatic campaign and all teams just signed off on the brief. What’s the next step in the process?
  876. Peter sees in his team’s data that many of the people that converted were exposed to a display campaign they ran. So they concluded the display campaign was a success. What did they forget to take into account?
  877. When combining programmatic products, what are the main benefits?
  878. You’ve been asked to explain to a new intern the things that you can test and things you can’t. Which question would be least suitable to determine with a test?
  879. Which isn’t available from a DoubleClick product?
  880. If you wanted to better understand your customer’s overall site behavior, including your site and other browsing they may do online, which two products would solve that problem?
  881. Louise, who works for a computer company, is trying to understand why customers she targeted in the “Care” stage didn’t convert. She sent them a “For your first purchase of software, get a discount” display ad. Why didn’t this work?
  882. You just received low results from an awareness campaign for a local non-profit you manage. You used a wide array of signals to make sure you provided relevant answers across the entire journey. What will you try next time?
  883. Jenni sells custom-printed t-shirts and knows that customers begin their journey online with research on their mobile devices and end up making most purchases using their desktop. But, on her recent programamtic campaign, mobile isn’t getting any credit. What would you recommend to solve this measurement problem?
  884. Rodrigo’s campaign to increase automobile sales using an online car configurator didn’t convert as hoped. The configurator usage was high, but sales were low. What went wrong?
  885. Imagine you’re prepping your team about an upcoming programmatic campaign and someone asks you how you’ll actually plan and buy ad space. What do you say?
  886. Which programmatic tool allows you to purchase individual impressions in auction-based environments?
  887. If you were asked to explain programmable marketing to your peers, what should you say?
  888. Ron markets football cleats for a sporting goods company and ran a dynamic campaign in the hope of increasing sales volumes. Conversions in the “See” stage were really low. Which explanation is the most plausible?
  889. Imagine you’re trying to convince your board that investing in programmatic technology would be a step forward for your company. What do you think would convince them?
  890. Ormond, who works for a national basketball franchise, wanted to reach more fans with new content. They identified new segments and aimed to deliver real-time, online, live game footage. Conversions were really low. Why didn’t this work?
  891. What would be the best key performance indicator for a coffee company that just opened and is trying to attract a new clientele?
  892. What is a direct way to earn revenue on YouTube?
  893. If your demographic changes on your latest video series and you see lower audience retention rates, which is the least likely next step?
  894. What action could you take to optimize content if you see repeated dips in your audience retention curve?
  895. Which of the following helps fuel the YouTube ads ecosystem?
  896. Which one of the following questions would need multiple measurements?
  897. Which factor may contribute to a video being demonetized due to advertiser-unfriendliness?
  898. When do fluctuations in CPMs typically happen?
  899. How can taking a snapshot of your channel performance help you with assessing your channel?
  900. Which compare metric would you use with the Watch time report to determine whether channel programming is Hero, Hub, or Help?
  901. When optimizing for mobile, what is not part of the standard checklist?
  902. Why is it important for a channel to consider what category they are in?
  903. What is the role of video metadata on YouTube?
  904. Why is it important to connect your YouTube channel with an AdSense account?
  905. What is an example of YouTube Analytics data that can help you with your business goal?
  906. If you want the option of gambling or alcohol ads to appear on your channel videos, what do you need to do?
  907. How can you estimate which ad formats are earning the most revenue?
  908. Why is it important to look at the overall revenue and CPMs per country?
  909. You have an English channel and notice that more viewership is starting to come from two Latin American countries that speak Spanish and Portuguese. What is something simple you can consider doing to maximize this opportunity?
  910. How does YouTube provide opportunity for micro-moments?
  911. Which could be a reason that two videos with similar monetizable view counts earn different revenue?
  912. What is a recommended action to support Help content programming?
  913. How might you incorporate the audience into a mission statement?
  914. YouTube Music Certification Assessment Answers
  915. How would you update channel branding to support a tour announcement?
  916. How do playlists affect watch time on a channel?
  917. What’s something that video cards can promote?
  918. What does not describe a thumbnail that has been optimized for discovery?
  919. What does a channel’s search data reveal?
  920. How can subscribers boost engagement, and thus discovery, for a video?
  921. What type of video is designed to get fans excited about a new album or tour?
  922. Why is behind-the-scenes footage from a tour valuable for a channel?
  923. What is the most effective way to promote a collaboration on YouTube?
  924. Which of the following accurately describes art tracks?
  925. How does upgrading to an Official Artist Channel affect an artist’s subscribers?
  926. How does an artist benefit from upgrading to an Official Artist Channel?
  927. What is the best way to leverage fan videos to grow a channel?
  928. What is the best way to engage fans before an album release on YouTube?
  929. Why is it important to keep uploading videos after an album release?
  930. What is the most effective way to encourage subscribers to engage with a channel?
  931. Why might you want to pin a fan comment on a video?
  932. How can you use Community to give fans an inside look at a tour?
  933. With which YouTube feature can you establish a watch page before a video is released, so that an artist and their fans can experience a new video together?
  934. What is one effective way to use the Community tab?
  935. What can tell you about the global reach of a channel?
  936. What can you do to prevent a sudden drop in a video’s audience retention chart?
  937. What should you do when a channel’s demographics data describes an audience that’s much different from the targeted audience?
  938. YouTube Analytics for Artists provides data about what type of content?
  939. What can you learn from the data in Music Charts & Insights?
  940. What’s one practical application for YouTube Analytics for Artists?
  941. If you wanted to learn in which major city a competing artist’s video is getting the most views this week, what might help you?
  942. What requirement must a video meet before it’s eligible to earn ad revenue?
  943. Which two parties most commonly enter into an SRAV (Sound Recording Audio Visual) agreement with each other?
  944. Who can monetize videos on YouTube?
  945. What deters advertisers from showing ads on a video?
  946. Why might you want to review the ratio of views to ads shown on a video in two time periods?
  947. What low-investment strategy could a channel try to increase viewership (and ad revenue) in another country?
  948. Why might two videos with similar monetizable view counts earn different revenue?
  949. What can generate additional revenue for an artist on YouTube?
  950. Can an artist promote a paid product or service on YouTube?
  951. What can you do to maximize an artist’s revenue potential in the YouTube Music app?
  952. Why should an artist seek legal advice before uploading a cover song?
  953. Which types of copyright apply most often to music on YouTube?
  954. What happens to a channel when it receives a copyright takedown notice?
  955. What is subject to a “match” in Content ID?
  956. What is the difference between copyright and Content ID?
  957. How does Content ID support the work of music rights holders?
  958. Why is it important to resolve asset ownership conflicts quickly?
  959. Which asset type is always linked to a sound recording asset on YouTube?
  960. What may indicate that a channel needs to clean up its reference files or revise its match policies?
  961. What predefined match policy allows viewers to watch a claimed video but does not allow ads to display on the video?
  962. Where can you see the relationship between references and assets?
  963. Which one of the following metrics may not be a part of your top level revenue performance?
  964. How might you determine if certain videos perform better within certain demographics?
  965. What is one way that channel managers help grow a channel?
  966. What options can channels have to restrict the types of ads that are shown on their channel?
  967. If you see a watch time pattern with periodic spikes in your watch time report, which one of the reasons is least likely?
  968. Ad formats are requested in which order?
  969. If you saw an increase in revenue, but overall CPMs were lower, which of the following could be why?
  970. Why is having an audience match important?
  971. What is a way to use the “Compare” feature in YouTube Analytics to determine benchmarks?
  972. Which content format is typically associated with a watch time pattern of a spike, followed by a gradual decline?
  973. Which is an example of a measurable question to ask?
  974. How can you benefit by analyzing which videos have the most likes or dislikes?
  975. Which of the following ways can you use YouTube Analytics to look at how well your ads are doing across a channel’s videos?
  976. Which of the following content types deters advertisers from showing ads on your videos?
  977. What is a best practice many channels use for their sections?
  978. To determine if a channel has effective metadata, what can you evaluate?
  979. What is one strategy to evaluate how well thumbnails distinguish content?
  980. What is the suggested time to respond to viewer comments?
  981. What is the benefit of using a branding watermark?
  982. What is the most common revenue stream channels use to earn money on YouTube?
  983. Which one of the following is not recommended for playlists?
  984. Why might you compare watch time patterns by content groups?
  985. Which is true of reserve ads?
  986. Which order outlines what ad formats take up the most to least space on the video player?
  987. If You Want To Adjust The Channel’s Demographic To Attract Primarily 13-17 Year Old Females, What Could You Do To Shift This Demographic?
  988. A key consideration when evaluating a video description is:
  989. What low-investment strategies could a channel do that may help increase viewership in a particular country?
  990. Which one of the following is not something you would check for when evaluating how video titles drive discovery?
  991. If an entertaining piece of content turns out to be highly searched for, what could that indicate?
  992. What is the correct order of steps to set up your channel for monetization and to get paid for earned ad revenue?
  993. Which is not an example of a benchmark?
  994. If a particular content format underperforms, what action might be appropriate?
  995. Where is a recommended place to add the channel mission statement?
  996. What is an auction ad?
  997. What influences how ads get onto a channel’s videos?
  998. What would you typically expect to see in the Watch Time “published” report for a Hero channel?
  999. Why are subscribers generally key to a channel’s success on YouTube?
  1000. If a sports channel broadcasts professional American football games and wants to target local university students, which demographic might be the best fit for this criteria?