1. Which tool can help you find a way to rank higher for target keywords?
  2. Which tool allows you to compare backlink profiles for more than 6 domains at the same time?
  3. Which issue type reported by the Site Audit tool is most severe?
  4. Which domain shown in the picture was the most popular worldwide in August 2018?
  5. Which SEMrush tool will guide you through the first steps in creating new content for target keywords?
  6. What is the point of the ‘Traffic Cost’ metric in the SEMrush Organic Research Positions Report? What does this metric mean?
  7. What does the SEMrush Sensor score refer to?
  8. To get the most precise and recent data about traffic and user behavior for your website SEO Dashboard allows you to connect Google Analytics and Google Search Console to it.
  9. The Traffic Analytics tool provides information about traffic driven to websites by different search engines EXCEPT…
  10. The My Reports Tool allows you to… Choose three answers.
  11. The Link Building tool helps users enrich their sites’ backlink profiles. The tool can be integrated with Google Search Console. What will this integration do?
  12. The Backlink Analytics report helps users compare backlink metrics for several URLs.
  13. SEMrush provides only fresh live data for Domain Analytics.
  14. Position Tracking allows users to track a website’s search visibility across multiple devices (desktop, phone and tablet) and locations (down to the city level) in one project.
  15. Position Tracking Visibility is another name for Average Position
  16. Mark the three statements that desсribe the Keyword Difficulty tool’s functionality.
  17. Look at these keyword lists generated by the Keyword Magic Tool. Keywords from which list are more difficult in terms of bypassing your competitors in organic search?
  18. Look at the table from the Backlink Gap tool. What do the numbers in the last five columns show?
  19. Look at the image below. Where should you click to learn about toxic markers of the first backlink in the list?
  20. Listing Management allows you to manage your business data (like address, phone number, business hours, and payment methods) in different directories at once.
  21. SEMrush SMM Fundamentals Exam Answers
  22. Why is audience retention in your YouTube analytics important?
  23. Which strategy do modern companies (especially startups) choose to get their product seen?
  24. Which social media network has the second highest amount of social media-generated website traffic after Facebook?
  25. Which of the following ways of measuring your social media results we call comparative metrics?
  26. Which of the following ideas for posting on Instagram will help you create a visual voice for your brand? Choose three options.
  27. Which factors will help you to be seen despite the changing social network algorithms of any given social network? Choose four answers.
  28. What type of paid social will give you the possibility to measure ROI?
  29. What statements are true about the content buckets approach? Choose two options.
  30. What should we call an influencer with 543 followers?
  31. What is the right order of steps in the Deming Circle?
  32. What is the recommended number of social media channels to concentrate on for the purpose of A/B testing?
  33. What is the name of the content manufacturing process in which you divide a single piece of content into multiple pieces that can be used on various social media channels?
  34. What is the most effective way to send social signals via Twitter and to be noticed by someone whose tweets you share?
  35. What is the main idea of digital relationship marketing?
  36. What is the first step for a business that wants to start a social media program?
  37. What can’t be done on Facebook?
  38. True or false? You should use KPIs or metrics to determine your social media campaign’s success only if your business goal is sales.
  39. True or false? The LinkedIn blogging platform is available for both personal and business pages.
  40. True or false? Since salespeople operate from their personal profiles, they can engage and connect with anyone, and they should take advantage of this opportunity to expand their network and expose their company’s content to a larger audience.
  41. True or false? Repeatedly publishing blog posts targeting the exact same keywords isn’t a good strategy because all of these blog posts will compete with each other for indexing in search engines.
  42. True or false? Embedding custom pixel to your website helps retarget people who should already have an affinity for you but for some reason have not converted to liking your page or engaging with your content.
  43. Mark the true statement.
  44. If you work for a sportswear company, what type of content should you publish in order to strengthen your company’s personal branding?
  45. Fill in the blanks: To determine which social media channels to spend time on, you should start with a social media audit. Then, you should analyze your competitors’ social media presence. Although you can’t get data on your _______, which is the most important, you can analyze your _______ rate and publishing _______ among other metrics.
  46. Fill in the blank: Employee advocacy works better for ______ companies.
  47. FiIl in the blank: _______ are the most challenging group of people to work with if you don’t know them personally, but in order to achieve success through social media marketing they are potentially the most rewarding.
  48. Choose the right statements about hashtags on Instagram. Choose two options.
  49. SEMrush Social Media Toolkit Certification Exam Answers
  50. You want to track your Facebook business page with the Social Media Poster. Which metrics can SEMrush provide you with? Choose three answers.
  51. You want to create your daily social media plan and decide how many tweets to post today with the help of the Social Media Tracker. What should you do?
  52. You want to create a post with the help of the Social Media Poster. Which of these media file types can you add? Choose three answers.
  53. You need to publish a post on social media, but you can’t do this before your designer prepares a necessary image. Which option in the Social Media Poster should you choose to keep from forgetting to publish the post on time?
  54. You need to find out which of your or your competitor’s pieces of content perform best on social media. Which Social Media Tracker report allows you to do this?
  55. You can track these metrics with the Social Media Tracker. Choose three answers.
  56. You can track mentions from a specific domain with the help of the Brand Monitoring Tool.
  57. You can search mentions in the Brand Monitoring Tool by country or language.
  58. You can integrate the Social Media Poster with both personal and business Facebook profiles.
  59. You can export this report on your social media activities to the My Reports tool.
  60. You can accomplish these tasks with the help of the Social Media Tracker. Choose two answers.
  61. While planning your post in Social Media Poster you can add images, GIFs, and UTM parameters to post links.
  62. Which of the following reports on your social media activities can you export to the My Reports tool?
  63. Which analytics data are available for your Twitter posts after you publish them with the Social Media Poster? Choose two answers.
  64. What does the Brand Monitoring Tool allow you to do? Choose 3 answers.
  65. The Social Media Poster can show you the difference between your total new page likes and new page unlikes.
  66. Social Media Poster allows you to find ideas for posting from RSS feeds.
  67. Marketing Calendar allows you to track the traffic data for your campaigns directly from your Google Analytics account, and share this data with your collaborators that have access to that calendar.
  68. In the Brand Monitoring tool, you can filter Twitter mentions by what? Choose 3 answers.
  69. In the Brand Monitoring Tool, you can compare your and your competitors’ brand name by…
  70. SEMrush Technical SEO Certification Exam Answers
  71. You have two versions of the same content in HTML (on the website and in PDF). What is the best solution to bringing a user to the site with the full navigation instead of just downloading a PDF file?
  72. You have site versions for France and Italy and you set up two hreflangs for them. For the rest of your end-users you plan to use the English version of the site. Which directive will you use?
  73. Which type of mobile website version should you use to check if the “user agent HTTP header” variable is included to identify and provide the relevant web version to the right user agent?
  74. Which HTTP code ranges refer to crawl errors? Choose two answers.
  75. When is it better to use the 410 error rather than the 404? Choose two answers:
  76. What is the proper instrument to simulate Googlebot activity in Chrome?
  77. What is the best solution when you know the approximate time of maintenance work on your website?
  78. What is link juice?
  79. What elements should text links consist of to ensure the best possible SEO performance?
  80. What does the 4XX HTTP status code range refer to?
  81. What are two the most commonly known best practices to increase crawling effectiveness?
  82. What are the two valid statements with regard to the critical rendering path (CRP)?
  83. True or false? The SEMrush Site Audit tool allows you only to define issues that slow down your website and does not give any recommendations on how to fix them.
  84. True or false? Pre-fetch and pre-render are especially useful when you do not depend on 3rd party requests or contents from a CDN or a subdomain.
  85. True or false? It is recommended to work with log files constantly, making it a part of the SEO routine rather than doing one-off audits.
  86. True or false? It is not possible to have multiple robots meta tags.
  87. PRG (Post-Redirect-Get pattern) is a great way to make Google crawl all the multiple URLs created on pages with many categories and subcategories.
  88. How often does the option to combine a robots.txt disallow with a robots.txt noindex statement make folders or URLs appear in SERPs?
  89. Fill in the blanks. When you want to use _____, make sure they are placed in plain HTML/X-robots tags. _____ injected by JavaScript are considered less reliable, and the chances are that Google will ignore them.
  90. Fill in the blank. It’s not wise to index search result pages because _____
  91. Fill in the blank. According to the latest statistics, 60% or more of all results for high volume keyword queries in the TOP-3 have already been moved over to run on ______
  92. Choose two statements that are right.
  93. Choose two statements that are false about the SEMrush Audit Tool.
  94. Choose two optimization approaches that are useful for performance optimization:
  95. Choose two http response status codes that will work where there is any kind of geographical, automated redirect. We are talking about international requests from different geographical regions.
  96. Choose two correct statements about a canonical tag:
  97. Choose two answers. Some disadvantages of ccTLDs are:
  98. Choose three statements referring to XML sitemaps that are true:
  99. Choose three answers. What information can be found in an access-logfile?
  100. Choose the wrong statement.
  101. Choose the correct statement about mark-up.
  102. Choose a valid statement about AMP:
  103. Choose a factor that affects the crawling process negatively.
  104. Check all three reasons for choosing a 301 redirect over a 302 redirect:
  105. A good approach is to create internal competition. More links to different URLs have the same anchor text, easier for Google is to differentiate which of them is the one URL on your domain to be ranked for the given keyword.
  106. SEMrush Site Audit Exam Answers
  107. With SEMrush Site Audit, it is possible to crawl a site behind a password protected login.
  108. Why would you want to slow down your crawl when setting up a site audit?
  109. Why is it necessary to make scheduled recrawls of your website on a regular basis?
  110. Which of the following is NOT a correct canonical tag implementation?
  111. Which is the best way to get rid of a 404 error if a web page moved to another URL?
  112. Which check is NOT related to a security issue?
  113. Which Site Audit report contains the list of unresolved errors?
  114. Where to find a list of your website’s new pages?
  115. Where should your sitemap be referenced?
  116. Where do you go to see technical improvement change logs?
  117. When working out a technical strategy how should you categorise issues?
  118. What should you fix first while working on technical SEO?
  119. What pages should be present in the sitemaps?
  120. What issues are the most critical to fix first?
  121. What is the rough rule of thumb for the ratio of internal links to your core pages?
  122. What is the purpose of an optimized title tag?
  123. What is the purpose of an optimized meta description?
  124. What is a canonical tag?
  125. Site Audit flags your web pages as duplicate content due to their URL parameters, which appear when one applies a filter. What should you do in this case?
  126. Should you use nofollow when internally linking and looking to pass page rank?
  127. If a page is “Orphaned” what does it mean?
  128. How do you quickly check if all the issues related to redirect loops and 404 errors are fixed?
  129. SEMrush Competitive Analysis And Keyword Research Test Answers
  130. You are running a brand new website, and are now analyzing your competitor’s website to build your initial keyword list. Choose two optimal scenarios.
  131. With the help of the Backlink Gap tool, you can find the list of high authority domains that refer to your competitors but not to you.
  132. Which reports deal with the keyword difficulty metric? Choose three answers.
  133. Which report will give you the best idea of how to choose a partner that has the highest chance of bringing you the highest conversion in your target location?
  134. Which position change will potentially lead to a higher traffic boost?
  135. Which metric indicates how hard it is to rank for a certain keyword in organic search?
  136. Which metric does the Y axis reflect on the Organic Position Distribution widget in Domain Overview?
  137. What type of keywords will help you to enrich your website’s semantic core with synonyms and misspellings?
  138. What is the ‘Destination Sites’ report of Traffic Analytics all about?
  139. Fill in the blanks. When it comes to content benchmarking, there are several tools that can help you out. _______ enables you to see how certain articles perform in terms of visibility and user engagement metrics. _______ helps find resources your competitors use to publish their content. _______ can help you find if a certain topic is covered by your competitors.
  140. SEMrush For Digital Agencies Certification Answers
  141. You can tag your projects to easily sort through them. E.g. to see which ones are on hold, which are assigned to a specific team member, etc.
  142. You can outsource content writing to SEMrush and order a new article right from the interface.
  143. You can easily migrate from your existing calendar software and transfer your scheduled activities to the SEMrush Marketing Calendar through importing a .ics file.
  144. You can connect your clients’ Google Analytics and Search Console accounts to SEMrush to receive more insights, personalized recommendations, and prioritize your tasks.
  145. Which tools would you use to help out a local client? Pick 6 options.
  146. Which tool allows you to locate gaps in your client’s organic or paid search strategy, benchmarking them against up to 4 competitors?
  147. Which tool allows you to compare multiple domains or various search metrics for a single domain and pick data visualization type?
  148. Which of the following statements about the Notes tool are true? Pick three answers.
  149. Which of the following statements about sharing a project are true? Pick 3 options.
  150. Which of the following features are available within SEMrush Marketing Calendar? Pick 5 answers.
  151. Which of the following data is NOT available within the Market Explorer tool?
  152. Which of the following can you do with the SEMrush Lead Generation tool? Pick 3 options.
  153. Which of the following can you do with My Reports PDF report builder? Pick 5 answers.
  154. Which SEMrush tool helps identify the audience sizes of two websites and how similar they are?
  155. What is the first thing you would do in SEMrush after landing a new client to manage their online visibility across multiple marketing channels and track the progress?
  156. What can you NOT do with the Project list?
  157. What are the options for creating a PDF report within SEMrush? Pick 4 answers.
  158. The ‘Quick modify’ button in my reports allows you to make bulk changes to the widgets in your report (e.g. change the time range or a domain).
  159. The Oppty sales intelligence tool by SEMrush offers a list of local prospects qualified based on the negative search visibility trend, so you can reach out to them with a tailored proposal.
  160. The Oppty sales intelligence tool by SEMrush offers a list of local prospects qualified based on growing marketing spend, so you can reach out to them with a tailored proposal.
  161. SEMrush offers multiple connection points to provide even more insights through integration with other data sources. Is Adobe Analytics one of them?
  162. SEMrush offers its original Google Data Studio connectors, so you can pull data from Position Tracking and Domain Analytics into your GDS account.
  163. SEMrush offers a free Position Tracking app that allows you to measure the success of your SEO on the go, including ranking fluctuations, visibility and traffic trends, and more.
  164. Is it possible to create white-label reports with SEMrush (completely replacing SEMrush branding with your own)?
  165. If you have a client with a domain that covers multiple languages (or countries), is it possible to set up a single SEMrush project for them?
  166. From which sources can you pull data into My Reports? Pick 3 answers.
  167. Does SEMrush offer data on the online presence of any website — its number of visits, traffic sources, user behavior, most visited pages, etc?
  168. Does SEMrush have an affiliate program that allows agencies to earn more money?
  169. Custom triggers allow you to set up notifications, so you can receive an alert in case there are any notable changes in your Position Tracking campaign. E.g. if any keyword enters or leaves the top 3/5/10 positions etc.
  170. Content Audit is one of the SEMrush Project tools. Pick 5 jobs it can do for you.
  171. API (Application Programming Interface) allows you to extract raw data without having to manually log into the software and pull it into another tool / interface of your choice. Please pick one correct statement about SEMrush APIs.
  172. A freelance copywriter or a team member without an SEMrush account can leverage checks on plagiarism, readability, tone of voice provided by SEO Writing Assistant simply by accessing a Google Docs template created by an SEMrush user.
  173. SEMrush Keyword Research Exam Answers
  174. Why should you analyze your competitor’s pages that have the most inbound links pointed to them?
  175. Which discovery questions should you ask the business before starting keyword research? Choose 3 options.
  176. Which SEMrush tool provides you with information about not provided keywords?
  177. Which SEMrush tool allows you to see the list of search phrases that are formatted as questions?
  178. Which SEMrush tool allows you to monitor the performance of keywords you discovered via Organic Traffic Insights?
  179. What does the keyword difficulty score tell you?
  180. What are the keyword phrase scores based on?
  181. The search results displayed for any query are based on what Google interprets to be the searcher’s intent.
  182. Proper keyword research allows you to rank with text-only content – and nothing else.
  183. Excellent keyword research is a one-and-done tactic – you should only do it once to boost your site rankings.
  184. SEMrush On Page And Technical SEO Exam Answers
  185. Which tool helps to define the domains that are worth trying to acquire backlinks from?
  186. Which issues regarding using HTTPS protocol can be found in the Site Audit HTTPS implementation report? Choose 3 answers:
  187. Which Site Audit chart shows if any of your website’s pages are broken, have redirects, or have server-side errors?
  188. What is the recommended number of on-page links in order not to be regarded as spam or of low quality?
  189. True or false? To get ideas in On Page SEO checker for how to improve the user experience you have to connect Google Analytics to your project.
  190. True or false? SEO Writing Assistant has an add-on for Google Docs and WordPress plug-in based on the SEO Content Template.
  191. Log File Analyzer allows you to not only identify the most crawled pages on a website, but also eliminate structural and navigational problems that affect the accessibility of certain pages.
  192. From where can you import pages and keyword data to On Page SEO checker? Choose 3 answers.
  193. Fill in the blanks. The ________________ donut chart shows the distribution across your website’s pages by the number of clicks away from the homepage. It is recommended to make sure there are no pages with a depth of more than ___ clicks.
  194. Brenda Is Compiling A List Of Definable Metrics And Key Performance Indicators (KPI) That Will Be Used To Evaluate The Final Success Of Her Google Ad Campaign. Which Two Statements Can Guide Her As She Creates A KPI? (Choose Two.)
  195. Hootsuite Platform Certification Answers
  196. ___________ allow you to monitor social activity around certain keywords, phrases and even specific users or locations, and respond where appropriate.
  197. _______ are created within ________, similar to how you create individual files within a broader file folder.
  198. YouTube is a great source for curating interesting content for your audience. Hootsuite helps with its built in YouTube ____________. This lets you discover new videos based on keywords or key phrases.
  199. You want to drive traffic to a new landing page for a campaign, and want a web address that’s short, easy to remember, trackable, and reflective of your brand. Hootsuite supports you with:
  200. You can publish single-image Instagram posts directly from the Hootsuite dashboard IF you have set-up your Instagram account as a ______________ .
  201. You can do all of the following actions in the Composer, except:
  202. Within the Hootsuite Composer, you can transform URLs into what’s called an ‘owly’ link. Which of the following are reasons you’d want to use this feature. (pick two)
  203. Within a Hootsuite Analytics report, you can add a tile, which is:
  204. With Hootsuite’s Mobile App you can share ______________ with teams, which allows everyone to monitor the same social feed and see which messages have been responded to and by whom.
  205. Why would you want to add someone to a Twitter list in Hootsuite?
  206. Which tools are found in the header section of the Hootsuite Dashboard? (pick three)
  207. Which statement most accurately describes incoming message assignments functionality in Hootsuite Mobile?
  208. Which of the options below best describe the action being undertaken in the visual?
  209. Which of the following is not an action you can take in the pictured area of the Hootsuite dashboard?
  210. Which of the following is not an action you can perform in the pictured area of the Hootsuite dashboard?
  211. Which of the following is not a metric type generated by the overview metrics module in Hootsuite Analytics?
  212. Which of the following is not a feature of Hootsuite?
  213. Which of the following is not a benefit of using Hootsuite Analytics?
  214. Which of the following is a reason why you would want to add a moderate stream for YouTube in your Hootsuite dashboard:
  215. Which of the following actions can NOT be done in the Hootsuite Planner feature?
  216. Which description below best describes the action you would undertake in this dialog box?
  217. Which Hootsuite feature would you use to draft and schedule a message with two images to LinkedIn, Twitter, and Facebook?
  218. Where in the dashboard would you primarily view and engage with your audience and the social media content published by others?
  219. When you share a report with a team member in Hootsuite Analytics, you can allow that team member to adjust the parameters of the report to fine​-tune the insights being generated. To allow for this collaboration, you must set the permission for that user to:
  220. When you add an RSS feed to Hootsuite’s Publisher, posts from blogs and websites you designate will be:
  221. When using the Hootsuite dashboard to post images to your personal Instagram account, there is a step that must be completed within the Instagram app itself–which is it?
  222. When using the Hootsuite Planner feature, the fastest way to compose a new message is to:
  223. When using the Composer in Hootsuite’s Mobile app, which options are available for sending your message?
  224. When using an RSS feed within Hootsuite, you can limit the amount of content being automatically pushed out to your followers by:
  225. When using Hootsuite’s mobile notification workflow to publish images to your personal Instagram account, which step do you need to complete on your phone?
  226. When using Hootsuite’s bulk composer, all messages must be scheduled at least _________ ahead of when you plan to import the CSV file into Hootsuite.
  227. When using Hootsuite to publish to Instagram, there are some types of posts that require using the “Mobile Notification Workflow”?, which involves a few additional steps. Pick the post type below that does NOT require using the “Mobile Notification Workflow”?.
  228. When using Composer, what’s the purpose of the social profile picker?
  229. When saving messages as drafts, it’s important to remember that your draft will not go live unless _______.
  230. When publishing to Pinterest from Hootsuite, you must include two items, which are:
  231. When onboarding new team members in Hootsuite Analytics, we recommend ________________ to reduce the risk that something is changed incorrectly or accidently.
  232. When it’s time to publish an Instagram message to a personal Instagram account, how does the Hootsuite mobile app alert you that it’s time to press the publish button in the Instagram app?
  233. When composing messages in Hootsuite, how would you make a rough draft of a message available with a team or team member for collaboration?
  234. What’s the difference between a stream and a tab?
  235. What is the most popular and loved feature of Hootsuite?
  236. What best describes the benefit of using Hootsuite, as compared to engaging natively from specific social networks?
  237. What are two reasons why it’s important to share your Hootsuite Analytics data with other members of your team? (pick two)
  238. What are two best practices for discovering whether a message you’ve scheduled with Hootsuite has failed to send? (pick two)
  239. Unlike the overview module in Hootsuite Analytics, which offers one set of aggregated analytics data, ___________________ allows you to run an unlimited number of customizable and shareable real-time analytics reports, dialed precisely to the diverse reporting needs of your organization.
  240. Unlike a Twitter Geo-Search, which is based on a specific geo code, Instagram’s location search uses:
  241. To share access to a Hootsuite Analytics report with your colleagues you need to use the Share button to:
  242. To manage comments and replies for all of your YouTube channel’s videos (in Hootsuite), simply add a ________________ stream.
  243. To find and engage in Twitter conversations happening in specific geographical areas that are relevant to your company, you should use:
  244. To determine the ROI of your social media activities, which Hootsuite product would you use?
  245. To access the Hootsuite App Directory, go to the:
  246. There are several ways you can schedule new messages in Hootsuite. Which of the following doesn’t belong?
  247. The reports feature in Hootsuite Analytics is:
  248. The purpose of the social profile picker in Composer is to:
  249. The following Hootsuite Mobile functionality makes it easy to collaborate with your teammates on the go:
  250. The data shown in the Post Performance area within Hootsuite Analytics is updated for the first _____ that a post is live.
  251. The best place to search for free (and paid) software for customizing your Hootsuite dashboard to your exact business need is called the:
  252. The Hootsuite bulk composer allows you to:
  253. The Hootsuite Analytics overview automatically analyzes two time periods: the one you select, and the corresponding length of time before that. For example, if you select the last 7 days, the overview will automatically pull data from the previous 14 days. Why would this be a benefit?
  254. Sometimes exchanges within a comment thread (in a stream) can become very long and hard to keep track of. If a particular thread is too important to miss, Hootsuite lets you quickly create a dedicated ________________ for that conversation to stay on top of the action.
  255. Some of the Apps in the Hootsuite App Directory include ‘plugins’ which means that the app:
  256. Select the 4 features that are available on Hootsuite Mobile: (pick four)
  257. See the visual below. Why is the action being taken here important?
  258. Publishing to Pinterest with Hootsuite saves time because:
  259. Overview and Reports are modules within which Hootsuite product?
  260. One benefit to using the Post Performance area within Hootsuite Analytics is that you can sort posts by:
  261. Let’s say you’re creating a search stream in your Hootsuite dashboard, to find mentions of the phrase vacation​ holiday getaway​. How do you ensure that the exact phrase gets searched for, rather than the individual words in the phrase?
  262. Let’s say you want to monitor all the comments on a campaign YouTube video you’ve just launched. To do this, create a ‘My Videos’ stream, find the campaign video, and then select ‘___________________’.
  263. Let’s say you have saved 10 different messages as drafts for a holiday campaign. You now need to schedule these drafts to publish, taking into account other messages that might already be scheduled. Which tool would be most effective for this task?
  264. Let’s say you draft a message in Hootsuite, but then want to create several variations of that message, without altering the original. Which of the following actions would you take?
  265. It’s important to ensure you’ve done the following steps when scheduling messages using the Hootsuite bulk compose feature. (pick two)
  266. In the Composer, there are 3 ways you can attach an image. Which of the following is not an option for attaching an image?
  267. In Hootsuite Analytics, what is an advantage of sharing a report with a colleague rather than sending them a static analytics report?
  268. If you’re looking for a quick, high-level overview of common metrics such as audience growth, website traffic, and total posts, you should look at:
  269. If you need to keep track of a large number of published or scheduled messages sent to a variety of social networks, Hootsuite __________ is an important product area for you to familiarize yourself with.
  270. Hootsuite’s mobile app lets you see all the posts you’ve scheduled and adjust publishing times to fine tune how you’re targeting your audience. You can access this functionality in the ___________ area of the app.
  271. Hootsuite’s ever-growing library of 100+ partner apps and integrations is called the:
  272. Hootsuite Publisher is an area of the dashboard that gives social media managers:
  273. Hootsuite Mobile is useful for teams because of the following functionality:
  274. Geo-search streams are used to help you find tweets and Twitter conversations relevant to your brand that are happening in:
  275. Enabling notifications for your Instagram account(s) in your Hootsuite mobile app allows Hootsuite to send _____________ that notify you when scheduled Instagram posts are ready to be published.
  276. Conversations on Twitter move fast and it’s easy to miss the opportunity to engage with an important influencer or prospect. _____________ are a great way to group together similar people and topics in Twitter so you can focus on activity within a group without distractions.
  277. By setting a team member’s permissions to ‘Can Edit’ on a report in Hootsuite Analytics, you are granting them:
  278. Anything you want to do in Hootsuite can be found in either the header or the sidebar, with the main workspace is in the center. Which of the following is not a feature you’ll find in the sidebar (see image below for reference)?
  279. After you’ve uploaded messages into Hootsuite using the Bulk Compose feature, where would you go to review and make edits to those messages?
  280. A vanity URL in Hootsuite is best described as:
  281. A report in Hootsuite Analytics has a flexible, interactive interface into which you can drag and drop an unlimited number of:
  282. A benefit of using the Post Performance area within Hootsuite Analytics is that it shows:
  283. Hootsuite Social Marketing Certification Exam Answers
  284. _______________would involve serving messages and content organically through your organization’s official social channels.
  285. ______________________ are a YouTube feature that show up at the end of your video and can be used to lead visitors to a landing page once they have finished watching it.
  286. ________________ increase the efficiency and effectiveness of social marketing tactics. Examples include Upcontent, Right Relevance, BuzzSumo and Hootsuite.
  287. _______________ let you segment your company offerings by target market and are a great way to focus on different products separately so you can modify positioning and messaging.
  288. _______________ have become increasingly important because of the decline of organic views AND because of the overall increase in the volume of content being published on social channels.
  289. You’re a social media manager for a hotel chain that’s planning a campaign to raise awareness about a new hotel location. Which of the following are examples of S.M.A.R.T. objectives that could support an awareness campaign like this? (PICK TWO)
  290. Your social content strategies should vary by network. For example, your post frequency and volume can be much larger on _________ than other networks. This makes ___________ a great place to post the same piece of content multiple times and recycle evergreen content.
  291. Your profile picture should be easily recognizable, even at ________ size. Your _________ is usually the best choice.
  292. Your Social Media Content Strategy should flow naturally from your _________________________.
  293. You should use the 3 R’s, Relevance, Reach, and Resonance, to help you evaluate advocacy candidates. Resonance refers to ________________.
  294. You should keep the information on your LinkedIn profile fairly sparse so people are compelled to navigate to your website for more information about your company.
  295. You have just uploaded a 4 minute video clip into your InstagramTV (IGTV) channel. You’ve added hashtags in the description to support discoverability. What’s another tactic you could have used to surface this video to your followers?
  296. You are taking photos for Instagram, using your phone’s camera, and lighting conditions are not optimal (too bright or too dark). What is the best way to compensate for this, before taking your photo?
  297. With respect to content calendar for social media, why is it a best practice to keep a larger monthly calendar with general information about upcoming launches and big events that impact your content strategy, as well as a detailed weekly calendar with specific copy and assets?
  298. Why should Social Media managers begin the budgeting process for their social marketing program well before final budget numbers are settled?
  299. Why is it important for social media managers to share insights into the performance of content shared on social media channels with individuals or teams within the organization responsible for creating branded content?
  300. Which two of the following are not key components of a Social Media Content Strategy (PICK TWO):
  301. Which of these is NOT a part of a Social Media Strategy?
  302. Which of these is NOT a best practice for sharing content on social media?
  303. Which of these is NOT a best practice for increasing engagement on Pinterest?
  304. Which of these is NOT a best practice for increasing engagement on LinkedIn posts?
  305. Which of the following would best be used to make your Instagram Story more discoverable?
  306. Which of the following statements describes a best practice regarding your Facebook page profile picture?
  307. Which of the following is NOT a reason an organization would use the Instagram Stories feature?
  308. Which of the following IS a component of a social media strategy?
  309. When you’ve been successful in building a community that is well-acquainted with your brand and products it can become self-monitoring. This means when a question arises:
  310. When thinking about influencers you’d like to attract to your brand’s community, what is the most important criteria to think about?
  311. When taking photos using your phone, why is it important to tap the subject of the photo on the screen before taking the picture?
  312. When taking photos for your social channels (e.g., Instagram) you can add depth, by using roads, buildings, or bridges to create a pathway that leads the viewer’s eye to a single spot. This is best described as:
  313. When running an employee advocacy program, eventually you’ll need to pull data to demonstrate the program’s effectiveness. Which of the following is not a common metric that program managers will look at?
  314. When running a paid ad on Facebook, which of the following is NOT a placement option.
  315. When plotting out the content mix for your upcoming social media publishing schedule, promotional content about your organization shouldn’t exceed _______________ of your overall content mix.
  316. When planning out your YouTube publishing schedule, stick to _______________ ______________, as well as a predictable publishing schedule so your subscribers know when to look forward to your next video and what to expect.
  317. When pitching your budget to decision makers, focus on conveying two things: First, demonstrate ROI from the current year, and second:
  318. When optimizing your social media profiles, be sure to provide a consistent business description across all channels. Brainstorm a handful of essential and _____________ keywords that describe your company, and incorporate them into the copy of your About sections.
  319. When optimizing your YouTube page, use_______________________ for grouping together relevant videos so viewers progress naturally from video to video, thus generating more views through their session.
  320. When it comes to creating video for your social channels, which of the following is NOT a best practice?
  321. When it comes to content marketing on social media, research is the key to understanding what content will resonate with your audience. Begin by looking at your Social Media Audit, and then use network-specific tools such as_______________ and ________________to identify your audience demographics by network.
  322. When it comes to building community, which of the following is not a form of engagement?:
  323. When engaging with your community, it’s important to keep your ___________ in mind and let it guide your response.
  324. When editing photos within the Instagram app, which filter would best be used to intensify the colours of an image?
  325. When editing a photo in the Instagram app, which filter would you use to darken the edges of the photo so the viewer’s eye is drawn to the centre?
  326. When drafting your social media posts, always aim to end them with a clear:
  327. When drafting the bio section of a social profile, keep in mind that only the first ____________ will appear to customers in search engine results, so be sure to convey the most important information first.
  328. When dealing with negative sentiment, you should:
  329. When creating content for YouTube, keep your videos shareable, accessible, and discoverable by using:
  330. When composing photos to share on your social channels, a best practice is to balance the elements of your photo along 3 sections. This is described as:
  331. When buying an ad for Instagram or Facebook, begin by selecting the ___________ that most closely matches your business needs.
  332. When broadcasting live on social, keep in mind that the best broadcasts are ones that feel like a conversation between brand and viewer. Unlike other forms of social video, you’ll get more views and engagement if your video ________________.
  333. When announcing an employee advocacy program, it’s important to reinforce why sharing content on behalf of an employer is in the employee’s self-interest. Employee advocates can showcase their engagement by sharing content that portrays the organization in a positive light, thereby ________________________.
  334. What is a unique feature of an Instagram Business account versus a Personal Account?
  335. What element of a crisis management plan defines the process that should unfold once an issue or crisis is identified? Hint: it also includes information about team members who should be engaged, when to pause publishing activities, and who decides when a crisis is over and normal social media operations can resume?
  336. What are the length restrictions when posting video content to the main feed of your Instagram account?
  337. Under Facebook’s Page settings, you can control whether the public can:
  338. Tools like Hootsuite Amplify can make running an employee advocacy program easier by allowing you to ______________.
  339. To take full advantage of your Twitter Media Gallery, ensure that you’ve uploaded a minimum of:
  340. To place a video ad over YouTube videos, which option would you choose?
  341. To grow your community on Twitter, it is suggested that you should:
  342. To ensure your brand is being represented in the best light on Instagram, and to discover content from your customers, you should keep an eye on _____________.
  343. The value of social advertising lies in the large audience size your company has the potential to reach and the ______________ social ad platforms offer.
  344. The key question you want to keep in mind while undertaking a social media audit is: “What value is your organization adding to your customers through social media now vs. _______________?”
  345. The best method for determining future social media targets is to establish benchmarks. You can do this by __________________.
  346. The __________________ feature on Twitter is a great way to surface trending content, because it lets you save multiple searches using relevant keywords, hashtags, applicable sentiment.
  347. The Facebook page moderation Feature:
  348. Social media tactics tend to fall into 3 categories:
  349. Social media objectives should:
  350. Since a business cannot follow their Facebook followers directly, it’s important to build a community and demonstrate customer care by _______________.
  351. Shared content can be categorised into two main categories: Curated, which is content gathered from trusted sources relevant to your industry, and ________________, which is content produced within your organization including items like blog articles, white papers, infographics, guides, and visuals.
  352. Scope, Process for Creating and Updating Documentation, Approvals + Operational Considerations, Social Media Policy, and Education and Training are the 5 constituent parts of what?
  353. Research shows that most Facebook users are on mobile, and engagement declines dramatically with longer posts. A rule of thumb, you should aim to write posts that are around ________.
  354. Public Twitter Lists are best used to follow:
  355. Private Twitter Lists are a great way to _________.
  356. Partnerships with complementary business whose audience shares values with yours are:
  357. Organizations should have a Crisis Management Plan for social media. This plan should identify the keywords, hashtags, etc. that should be continually monitored, to proactively identify external issues before they spiral into a crisis. This component of a Crisis Management Plan is referred to as a _________.
  358. One benefit to having an employee advocacy program is that social network algorithms generally ____________.
  359. Once you’ve onboarded a participant into the brand advocacy program, focus on keeping and growing their commitment and cultivating enthusiasm. At the start, check in periodically to make sure your new advocate is engaged and committed. ______________ check ins are a good rhythm.
  360. On your Facebook Business page, which feature would you use to provide your followers with the ability to shop now, sign up, or contact your organization?
  361. On Snapchat, a great way to generate buzz and encourage your followers to amplify your brand, is by creating image overlays referred to as __________.
  362. On Instagram, what are Highlights?
  363. On Instagram, a great way to track key influencers and brand advocates to ensure you’re engaging with their content is to:
  364. LinkedIn offers a unique type of paid advertising, where you can send targeted, customized messages to users’ LinkedIn inboxes, where it appears alongside other direct messages. This ad type is called:
  365. LinkedIn offers a type of paid advertising where a post is promoted in your target audience’s HomeFeed, but is NOT published on your LinkedIn Homepage.
  366. Let’s say you’re looking to increase the visibility of your company blog. What, in addition to SEO tactics, could you do to make it easy for people to organically find your previously published posts?
  367. Let’s say you’re evaluating a customer of your organization as a potential brand advocate. In addition to the three R’s, what’s another criteria you could use to determine whether this person would represent your organization well?
  368. Let’s say you’re a Social Marketer, and you’re about to start curating content for your organization. You’re looking for tools that will help make this job more efficient and effective. Which of the following is NOT a feature you would generally look for in such a tool?
  369. Let’s say you want to create an Instagram ad, and want a high degree of control over budget, targeting, and creative. Which is the best method/tool to use?
  370. Instant Experience is a paid advertising feature on Instagram, configured to show media, display a storefront, complete a form, or explore lifestyle images with tagged products. To use Instant Experience, you’ll need to create your ad in _____________.
  371. Instagram lets you post photos as portrait, landscape, or square. Why is it a good idea to take your photos in the format/orientation you intend to post them in?
  372. Instagram doesn’t offer many options for formatting your bio within the app, but there is a workaround for adding line breaks to your bio description to make it easier to read. Which of the following best describes this workaround?
  373. Instagram allows you to include clickable links in the following area(s):
  374. Individual Instagram Stories have a limit of 15 seconds for video content. However, using Instagram’s segments tool, you can record a longer video. The Segments tool then automatically splices this longer video into 15 second segments, that will play consecutively for your viewers. To do this, simply:
  375. In order to cement positive relationships with your brand advocates on Twitter, you should:
  376. In Instagram Stories, you can add up to 10 text hashtags, to support discoverability. What are two techniques you could use the maximum number of hashtags while avoiding a cluttered look? (PICK TWO)
  377. If you’re using paid advertisements on Twitter, and want more people to see your tweets, what’s the best campaign type to use:
  378. If you’re running a Facebook or Instagram campaign and need sophisticated targeting and budgeting options, which would be the best tool to use.
  379. If you’re new to Twitter and want to grow your audience using paid advertisements, what campaign type would work best?
  380. If you’re editing a photo in the Instagram app, and need the bright areas of the image to be brighter without affect the dark areas, which filter would you use?
  381. If you want to run a paid advertisement that appears across a wide variety of websites, videos, and mobile apps, your best choice is:
  382. If you have a Facebook Business page, you can also create and manage ______________ ads through the Facebook advertising platform.
  383. If you encounter a question on social media channels to which you don’t have an answer, what is the best way to respond?
  384. If you are regularly posting content to multiple social networks, an important rule of thumb is to _____________.
  385. If you are creating an Instagram Story, with the purpose of gathering audience insights, which would be the best feature to use?
  386. Identifying and defining _______________for the calendar year is essential when planning your social media activity.
  387. Identify the order of the elements below that most accurately reflects their relationship to each other.
  388. Cover photos have a prominent location in your social media profiles, so you should use this space strategically – for example, it’s a great place to ____________________.
  389. Content curation involves gathering and evaluating pieces of media from respected sources, and then sharing the most valuable gems with your audience. But modern social media professionals in larger organizations also need to gather, evaluate and share relevant content produced ___________.
  390. Community building on LinkedIn by organizations with LinkedIn Pages can grouped into three main categories:
  391. Carrying out social media marketing without a ______________ could result in posts that are unbalanced in tone, subject matter, or purpose. Organizations without this plan will find it more difficult to achieve social media goals and maintain an effective cadence with their posts.
  392. Branded hashtags work best on the following platforms:
  393. Brand voice/persona should be developed after your social strategy has been implemented for 6 months to see what kind of voice/persona occurs naturally.
  394. Brand advocates are:
  395. Brand Advocacy programs should contain 4 components: Program goals, criteria for selection, a plan for onboarding, and finally, ____________.
  396. Before launching a paid social advertising campaign it’s best to have:
  397. An example of an “earned” social media tactic:
  398. A social media policy is intended to:
  399. A social media manager for Athene Suites Hotels has gathered hundreds of vacation photos submitted by followers of the organization’s Instagram account. The best of these photos will be posted on the channel in an upcoming campaign that celebrates customers. Which term best describes these photos:
  400. A social media content calendar should be broken down into 2 major sections: Your __________ which could contain items such as campaign starts, influencer takeovers, and new blog posts, and a more fine-grained ______________ which could be a detailed schedule of every post for each of your social networks.
  401. A social media audit would typically NOT include:
  402. A practical benefit of ________________is that it requires little in the way of resources which can be helpful for organizations that don’t have a dedicated content team, but that still want to position themselves as trusted advisors in their industry.
  403. A key tool to achieving your social marketing goals is a strong ___________ which acts as a game plan for coordinating, creating, and distributing your organization’s _________.
  404. A key part of running a business blog is ensuring its content is easily discoverable. Make sure all your posts are ________________ by incorporating keywords into the title, subheadings, and body of your post, as well as the URL.
  405. A good first step to connecting with influencers is to:
  406. A best practice for optimizing your video content for Facebook engagement is to:
  407. A benefit of using Google Ads Experience is the ___________ option, which automatically manages an ad after initial set-up by determining the most relevant targeting options.
  408. Advanced Google Analytics Assessment Exam Answers
  409. Which would prevent data from appearing in a Custom Report?
  410. Which users could be targeted with Dynamic Remarketing to bring them back to a website?
  411. Which remarketing audiences can be defined in Google Analytics?
  412. Which of these scopes could be used for dimensions and metrics?
  413. Which are Goal types in Google Analytics?
  414. When does the Google Analytics tracking code send an event hit to Analytics?
  415. When does the Google Analytics tracking code send a pageview hit to Analytics?
  416. When defining a measurement plan, what is the order of steps?
  417. When a Custom Dimension is active, which data will it affect?
  418. What report shows data segmented by channel?
  419. What report groups an audience based on acquisition date and compares behavior metrics over several weeks?
  420. What report analyzes which webpages get the most traffic and highest engagement?
  421. What is “remarketing” in Google Analytics?
  422. What is the maximum duration a user can be included in a remarketing audience?
  423. What four parameters can be included with an event hit for reporting?
  424. What does Google Analytics use to differentiate new and returning users?
  425. What does Google Analytics call a URL that passes data parameters for reporting?
  426. What are macro-conversions in a measurement plan?
  427. What Google Analytics data can be used to define a remarketing audience?
  428. To view data in reports by user categories such as Bronze, Gold, and Platinum status levels, what Google Analytics feature is needed to collect this data?
  429. To set up Dynamic Remarketing, what must first be created in Google Analytics?
  430. To set up Dynamic Remarketing for a retail vertical, what must be linked to Google Ads?
  431. To send data to Google Analytics from a web-connected device like a point-of-sale system, what feature must be used?
  432. To see data for users from the U.S. and Canada only in a view, which filter would be applied?
  433. To pair metrics with dimensions, what should they have in common?
  434. To enable remarketing in Google Analytics, what must first be enabled?
  435. To create a Custom Dimension for membership status (i.e., rewards level), what scope would be applied?
  436. To collect the number of comments users posted to a website page, what feature would be used?
  437. To collect data from two websites with different URLs using a single Google Analytics property, what feature must be set up?
  438. Segments applied to reports can analyze data for which of the following groups?
  439. Remarketing can show relevant ads on which Google properties?
  440. Multi-channel Funnel reports can credit conversions across which channels?
  441. In a “last-click” attribution model, Google Analytics will attribute all of the conversion credit to which source(s)?
  442. If default Google Analytics tracking code is installed on pages with different domains, Analytics will count these users and sessions separately.
  443. If data is excluded from a view using a filter, it may be recovered within thirty days.
  444. If a user watches a video with event tracking three times in a single session, how many Unique Events will be counted?
  445. How would Google Analytics credit a channel that contributed to a conversion prior to the final interaction?
  446. How many user cookies does an audience list require to be eligible for Google Ads Search Ad remarketing?
  447. How many segments may be applied at once?
  448. Google Ads and Google Marketing Platform campaigns served on the Google Display Network are grouped into which channel?
  449. For an event goal defined as playing a video, how many Goal conversions will Google Analytics record if that video is played three times in the same session, ?
  450. Filters may be applied retroactively to any data that has already been processed.
  451. Custom segments may be created using which criteria?
  452. Custom Reports have which capabilities?
  453. Custom Metrics can have which scopes?
  454. Custom Dimensions can be used in which reports?
  455. By default, Google Analytics can recognize returning users over multiple sessions from different browsers and devices.
  456. Because segments are applied before sampling, segmented data will not be sampled.
  457. A session in Google Analytics times out after how many minutes by default?
  458. Getting Started With Google Analytics 360 Assessment Answers
  459. Why would dbm / cpm sessions reported in the All Traffic > Source/Medium report differ from the number of sessions reported in the Acquisition > Google Marketing Platform > Display & Video 360 reports? (select two)
  460. Which set of reports would you use to view granular Google Ads dimensions such as Sitelinks, Bid Adjustments and Search Queries?
  461. Which report would you use to understand how Display interactions across the full purchase path contribute to conversions?
  462. Which of the following statements about Custom Funnels are true? (select three)
  463. Which of the following features are only available for Analytics 360 properties? (select three)
  464. Which of the following can you use within a single Custom Report? (select two)
  465. Which of the following can be done with the Display & Video 360 integration? (select three)
  466. Which of the following are used to calculate ROAS? (select two)
  467. Which of the following are reasons you would expect discrepancies between Campaign Manager Clicks and Campaign Manager Click-Through Sessions in Google Analytics? (select three)
  468. Which of the following are benefits of using auto-tagging with your Campaign Manager integration? (select three)
  469. Which of the following are benefits of using BigQuery to analyze your Analytics 360 data? (select three)
  470. Which of the following are benefits of the Search Ads 360 reporting integration? (select three)
  471. Which features need to be configured within the views of your new Roll-Up Property? (select three)
  472. Which feature is unique to Roll-Up Reporting Properties
  473. When does sampling occur in Analytics 360 reports?
  474. What would indicate that your report has exceeded its row limit?
  475. What reporting objectives can be accomplished in BigQuery but not within the Google Analytics interface? (select two)
  476. What needs to be created before completing the BigQuery integration with Analytics 360?
  477. What is a key benefit of Custom Tables when compared to Unsampled Reports?
  478. What is BigQuery?
  479. Using the BigQuery Export schema, which of the following fields are available in BigQuery?
  480. The All Traffic > Source/Medium report may be sampled while the Acquisition > Google Marketing Platform > Display & Video 360 reports are always unsampled
  481. Once integrated with Display & Video 360, where can you find the Display & Video 360 reports within Analytics 360?
  482. Once integrated with Campaign Manager, where can you use Campaign Manager dimensions within Google Analytics? (select three)
  483. Once integrated with Campaign Manager, Display & Video 360 or Search Ads 360, which types of conversions can be reported in the Conversions > Multi-Channel Funnels reports? (select three)
  484. In the custom funnel below, what was the percentage of users who left the funnel between stage 1 and stage 2?
  485. In the Acquisition > Google Marketing Platform > Campaign Manager > Campaigns report, which metric group would you select to see Google Analytics sessions side-by-side with Campaign Manager impressions and clicks?
  486. If your property is integrated with both Display & Video 360 and Campaign Manager and auto-tagging is enabled, what will be the source/medium for sessions from Display & Video 360?
  487. If you want to identify generic keywords that are driving high site engagement, which Search Ads 360 report and metric would you view? (select two)
  488. If you prefer to see your manual tag values for your Campaign Manager traffic, what feature would you edit in Google Analytics?
  489. How can you create Audiences in Google Analytics based on Display & Video 360 dimensions? (select two)
  490. Auto-tagging will ensure that traffic from your Search Ads 360 ads is consistently included in which Default Channel Grouping?
  491. Assuming we are using standard Default Channel Grouping definitions and DCLID auto-tagging, which channel will include sessions from Display & Video 360?
  492. A user sees one of your Campaign Manager ads. The next day, the user navigates to your site through an email campaign. How would their session be reported in the Campaign Manager > Campaigns report?
  493. Google Analytics For Beginners Assessment Answers
  494. Why is it important to keep one unfiltered view when using filters with Google Analytics?
  495. Which “sources”? are available in Google Analytics?
  496. Which “mediums”? are available in Google Analytics?
  497. Which “channels” are available in the default Channels report?
  498. Which three tags does Google Analytics require for accurate campaign tracking?
  499. Which tags are standard Google Analytics campaign parameters?
  500. Which represents the hierarchical structure of a Google Analytics account from top to bottom?
  501. Which formats may be used to add a custom campaign parameter to a URL?
  502. Which are examples of Goals in Google Analytics?
  503. Which Traffic Source dimensions does Google Analytics automatically capture for each user who comes to your site?
  504. Which Google Analytics visualization compares report data to the website average?
  505. Where should the Analytics tracking code be placed in the HTML of a webpage to collect data?
  506. When will Google Analytics end a session by default?
  507. When selecting “Share Template Link”? in the dashboard, what will be shared?
  508. When creating a Goal in Google Analytics, which are required?
  509. When a new view is created, what data will be included?
  510. When a filter is applied to a view, what data is affected?
  511. When a dashboard is shared, users can edit the dashboard configuration.
  512. What setting must be enabled to view data in Demographics and Interests Reports?
  513. What report would best help identify potential browser issues with website traffic?
  514. What report shows what mobile devices were used to view a website?
  515. What report should be used to check if users are leaving from important pages on your website?
  516. What report lists the website pages where users first arrived?
  517. What report can show how particular sections of website content performed?
  518. What feature would be used to compare two date ranges in a report?
  519. What does the “Users”? metric measure?
  520. What are the options for filtering data in Google Analytics?
  521. What Google Ads report in Google Analytics can show which bid adjustments resulted in higher conversions?
  522. Using tracking code, Google Analytics can report on data from which systems?
  523. To use Analytics to collect website data, what must be added to the website page HTML?
  524. To quickly generate campaign tags, what tool should be used?
  525. To locate a property’s Analytics tracking code, which sequence of steps should be followed?
  526. To collect data using Google Analytics, which steps must be completed?
  527. The Analytics tracking code can collect which of the following?
  528. Once Google Analytics processes data, it’s stored in a database where it can’t be modified.
  529. In which order does Google Analytics filter data?
  530. If the Google Merchandise Store sets up a URL goal of “/thankyou”? and a Match Type of “Begins with”?, which of the following pages on www.googlemerchandisestore.com will count as goals?
  531. How can the amount of data in a sampled Google Analytics report be increased?
  532. Google Ads lets users advertise on which properties?
  533. Enabling auto-tagging does what?
  534. A user with “edit”? permissions at the Account level will automatically have “edit”? permissions at which other levels?
  535. A deleted view can be recovered by account administrators within how many days?
  536. Google Analytics For Power Users Assessment Exam Answers
  537. You’re running an email promotion providing a discount to users with a birthday in the month of September. What metrics and dimensions should you include in a custom report to determine the day and time when users are most likely to complete a purchase?
  538. You’re evaluating whether high resolution product images on product detail pages is worth the investment. What metric tells you how often a product was purchased after its detail page was viewed?
  539. You have a goal configured for newsletter signups. You want to determine which traffic sources are sending you the most users who’ve signed up for your newsletter. In this All Traffic report, which setting should you adjust to find this data?
  540. You decide to run a landing page experiment to test a new carousel which highlights your top performing products. Which two reports could you use to determine which products to highlight? (select two)
  541. Which setting do you use to change the metric displayed in the table?
  542. Which report, without additional configuration, shows e-commerce conversion rates for users on Tablets?
  543. Which report would you use to build a segment of users who abandoned a specific step of the checkout path?
  544. Which feature enables you to analyze up to 3 dimensions at once?
  545. Where can you view a heatmap reporting users by time of day?
  546. When viewing the Mobile Overview report below and comparing “Made a Purchase” and “Didn’t make a purchase” segments, which conclusion is recommended?
  547. When used as a content site KPI, what does a high Average Time on Page indicate about a specific page’s performance?
  548. When tracking both ecommerce and goals, what are two ways to analyze Page Value based only on ecommerce? (select two)
  549. What does “(Other)”? indicate in the Channels report? (select two)
  550. What can the Shopping Behavior Analysis report tell you? (select two)
  551. What can the Product List Performance report be used for? (select three)
  552. What can be used to measure scroll depth in Google Analytics?
  553. What are two benefits of the Reverse Goal Path report? (select two)
  554. What actions must you take to enable Enhanced Ecommerce in Google Analytics? (select two)
  555. In what scenario would you use a custom metric?
  556. In this Product Performance report, which product indicates potential issues with the product details page?
  557. In this Product List Performance report, which product list and list position is most efficient at driving product clicks?
  558. In this Checkout Behavior Analysis report, which step in the checkout process should you optimize based on its drop-off rate?
  559. In this Channels report, we’ve clicked into the Referral channel. What are the two top sources of users in the Referral channel?
  560. If one of your site’s paid traffic sources had a low ecommerce conversion rate, which actions should you take? (select two)
  561. How would you view data for Revenue, Transactions, and Average Order Value per traffic source?
  562. How could you compare the conversion rate for when the “About Us” page was viewed versus when the page was not viewed?
  563. Assuming that ecommerce tracking and/or goals are configured, which of the following Analytics reports does NOT show conversion rates?
  564. Google Tag Manager Fundamentals Assessment Answers
  565. Which can be used to populate information to the data layer?
  566. Which built-in variable should you use to define an event trigger based on the class of a Submit button?
  567. Which are benefits of using the data layer in Tag Manager?
  568. Which Tracking ID format should be used when setting up an Analytics Pageview tag?
  569. Which Tag Manager tag would you use to track metrics and dimensions in Google Analytics?
  570. Where should the data layer object be placed in the website code?
  571. Where can you find a list of business-vertical attributes for Dynamic Remarketing?
  572. Where can the container code be found in Google Tag Manager?
  573. When logging into Google Tag Manager for the first time, what needs to be set up?
  574. What would you put in the Conversion Value field to dynamically capture the conversion values associated with your Google Ads tag?
  575. What kinds of website actions can trigger a Google Analytics event tag in Tag Manager?
  576. What kind of variable should be used for a reusable Google Analytics property ID variable?
  577. What kind of user-defined variable should you use to track the URL of a webpage in Tag Manager?
  578. What is stored in a Tag Manager container?
  579. What is a “trigger” in Tag Manager?
  580. What is a “container snippet” in Tag Manager?
  581. What event type would you choose to track button clicks using an event trigger?
  582. What does Google Analytics Dynamic Remarketing use to show website visitors ads for content they previously viewed?
  583. What does Google Ads use to generate dynamic ads based on a user’s past interactions with website products and services?
  584. What are the three parts of a trigger in Tag Manager?
  585. What Tag Manager variable type should you use to track only the part of a URL after the hash sign?
  586. To set up Dynamic Remarketing in Tag Manager, where do you enable data collection for Advertising Features?
  587. To send Custom Metric data with an Analytics Pageview tag, what do we need to add to the Pageview tag in Tag Manager?
  588. To send Custom Dimension data with an Analytics Pageview tag, what do you need to add to the Pageview tag in Tag Manager?
  589. To pass static values from a website into Google Analytics Custom Dimensions using the data layer, which of these must be set up?
  590. To pass dynamic values from a website into Google Analytics Custom Metrics using the data layer, which of these must be set up?
  591. To create an Google Ads Conversion tracking tag in Tag Manager, which of these is needed from your Google Ads account?
  592. To create a tag implementation plan, what are the recommended guidelines?
  593. The data layer “push” method allows you to do what?
  594. How do you enable a built-in variable in Tag Manager?
  595. How are variables structured in the data layer?
  596. Google Tag Manager helps you manage your website in which of the following ways?
  597. Google Tag Manager can only be used with Google tags
  598. For Dynamic Remarketing, what needs to be set up in Google Analytics to collect information from the data layer?
  599. For Dynamic Remarketing, what kind of variable needs to be set up in Tag Manager to collect information in the data layer?
  600. For Dynamic Remarketing, to set your tag to fire on a particular page, what should your trigger variable be set to?
  601. For Dynamic Remarketing, if you wish to use the data layer to collect when a user adds a product to their shopping cart without refreshing the page, what Analytics track type would you use?
  602. Data Layer variables automatically persist across different web pages
  603. A Tag Manager account allows you to do which of the following?:
  604. Introduction To Data Studio Assessment Answers
  605. Which types of components can be included in a report?
  606. Which term refers to the underlying data that can be connected to Data Studio?
  607. Which sharing option always requires recipients to log in with their Google account?
  608. Which setting makes your report larger?
  609. Which reflects a best practice for designing your report?
  610. Which is the best tool to quickly visualize data that answers a specific question without saving or sharing it?
  611. Which feature helps you create a new report quickly?
  612. Which components must get their data from a data source?
  613. Which are examples of data sets?
  614. Which actions can you take on the Data Studio Home page?
  615. Which access permission would you provide to a coworker to collaborate with them on a report?
  616. What must the data source owner do to allow report editors to modify data fields?
  617. What is unique about a report-level component, compared to a page-level component?
  618. What is the purpose of templates?
  619. What is the purpose of extracting data?
  620. What is the purpose of creating a thumbnail image of your report?
  621. What is the purpose of a scatter plot?
  622. What is the purpose of a bullet chart?
  623. What is the order in which data flows into Data Studio charts?
  624. What is the benefit of using the Theme tab?
  625. What is required for a single chart to reference data from two different data sources?
  626. What is one benefit of using blended data?
  627. What does the “refresh fields” button in the data source do?
  628. What does a filter control allow viewers to do?
  629. What do the Theme tab settings affect?
  630. What can you do with the Explorer tool?
  631. What can you do with calculated fields?
  632. What can an individual viewing a report do?
  633. What can a single filter control affect?
  634. What are the benefits of using Data Studio?
  635. To share your report via a public link and allow all viewers to see chart data, which data source setting would you choose?
  636. Once you’ve connected your data in Data Studio, how often do you need to manually provide your data set credentials again?
  637. In which ways can you change an existing field?
  638. If you upload data from a CSV file to create a data set in Google Cloud, how can you update that data set in the future?
  639. How can you use any Data Studio report as a template?
  640. Which of the following statements is true as it pertains to device management with Android Enterprise?
  641. What are the four layers of security that keep Android devices safe?
  642. Which Google led and validated program makes it simple for businesses to confidently select, deploy and manage Android devices and services that meet elevated enterprise requirements?
  643. Which of the following statements is true pertaining to company-owned, fully managed device enrollment:
  644. The Managed Google Play store allows IT admins to:
  645. What is Android Enterprise?
  646. ___________ enrollment enables large scale over the air bulk Android (8.0+) deployments across multiple device makers so organizations can mobilize their employees with ease and no manual setup.
  647. What feature of the Android platform protects 99.99% of devices from potentially harmful applications?
  648. On personally owned Android devices featuring Android (5.0+) what feature does a “Work Profile” provide?
  649. Device Admin API’s should be used for deployments when:
  650. On personally owned Android devices running Android (5.0+), what features do a “Work Profile” provide?
  651. If you have Universal Event Tracking (UET) enabled, you can use it to verify and create your store in Microsoft Merchant Center (MMC). True or false?
  652. Microsoft Advertising supplies the curated list of potential customers for in-market audiences. True or False?
  653. With the Microsoft Audience Network, the only targeting option available is keyword targeting. True or False?
  654. Microsoft Advertising includes robust research and reporting tools to help you identify potential areas for campaign improvement. What is it called when you improve your campaign based on the results of these tools?
  655. Keyword Planner is a keyword research tool that provides which kinds of insight?
  656. Microsoft Advertising Editor allows you to work and make changes offline and online. True or False?
  657. Search syndication and distribution is when a search engine provides its services to a third-party in need of search capabilities for their digital properties. True or false?
  658. How might using Multi-User Access for sign up be useful for your agency or business?
  659. Microsoft Advertising Multi-user Access lets you use one username to access multiple customer shells. True or false?
  660. An Expanded Text Ad can contain 2 ad titles, 2 ad copies and URL paths. True or false?
  661. You can serve ads on the Microsoft Audience Network (MSAN) from search campaigns. True or false?
  662. Microsoft Advertising Scripts are JavaScript-based actions you can to build to analyze, change, or delete items in your account based on custom criteria. True or False?
  663. What are two best practices for monitoring performance in Syndication networks? (Select 2)
  664. Choose 2 targeting options that would allow you to better serve ads to potential customers who meet specific criteria.
  665. The Microsoft Audience Network supports which two kinds of ad formats? Choose all that apply.
  666. You cannot copy campaigns from Google Ads into Microsoft Advertising using the Google Import tool. True or false?
  667. Microsoft Advertising will not use your Google Ads sign-in information for any purpose other than the import process. True or false?
  668. What are some Microsoft Advertising guidelines to use in order to avoid common editorial disapprovals?
  669. You can now receive billing alerts and monthly invoices via email. True or false?
  670. What is the key tactic in optimizing your PPC ads?
  671. Which ad extension will help boost ad performance by highlighting products and services? Choose all that apply.
  672. A custom audience is a type of remarketing list. What is NOT required to set this up?
  673. Exclusions you set at the campaign level will always cascade down to all of the ads in your campaign, regardless of ad group settings. True or false?
  674. Device investment (desktops/laptops, tablets and smartphones) can be controlled by bid modifiers of: (Select 2)
  675. What are the campaign and image limits with Google Import for Audience Campaigns?
  676. What bid strategies are currently available for bid optimization? Choose all that apply.
  677. Coho Winery wants their ad to display for the keyword cabernet sauvignon only when a customer’s search query matches their keyword exactly, including some close variants, with no extra words. Which keyword match option should they select?
  678. You can adjust your bidding so ad spend will go toward the best performing devices. True or false?
  679. Microsoft Advertising Editor allows customers to use the Google Import tool to schedule and sync imports from Google Ads campaigns automatically. True or false?
  680. Which Microsoft Advertising functionality policies must advertisers adhere to?
  681. How do bid adjustments (modifiers) affect the display of your ad?
  682. In order for LinkedIn Profile Targeting to work, people must meet which criteria? (Select 2)
  683. Page feeds can’t support URLs for dynamic search ads campaigns in a spreadsheet format. True or false?
  684. Which ad extension report allows you to track how your business attracts customers across PCs, tablets and mobile devices? Choose all that apply.
  685. Audience remarketing is a good way to select the appropriate customers to see your ad. True or false?
  686. Trey Research sells vegetable seeds and does not want its ad to display when a customer searches for flower seeds. To avoid displaying an ad when a customer searches for flower seeds, which Microsoft Advertising option should they select?
  687. A tracking tag (UET tag) is designed to help advertisers target their audience for which purpose? Choose all that apply.
  688. What Microsoft Advertising feature allows you to specify how closely a customer’s search query must match your keyword before your ad is displayed?
  689. The Competition tab in Reporting gives you what two functionalities? (Select 2)
  690. Which column in the Microsoft Advertising data summary table tells you the pre- and post-auction delivery status of your campaign?
  691. When using Microsoft Advertising Intelligence, you should include what metrics in running a report?
  692. A broad match modifier tells Microsoft Advertising that a specific word or words must not be present in order for your ad to display. True or False?
  693. A best practice for updating UET tags on your website is:
  694. Which elements in the Microsoft Advertising quality score formula should you use to determine the best ways to optimize your ads?
  695. Which of the following audience variables can be used to target your ads and keywords? Choose all that apply.
  696. The Microsoft Audience Network is an advertising solution powered by the Microsoft Graph and Artificial Intelligence. True or False?
  697. You can find your PPC quality scores in your Performance Reports and in your Keywords list. True or false?
  698. Which Delivery status is given to ads or keywords that violate the Microsoft Advertising policies?
  699. Dynamic search ads are most appropriate for which two types of advertisers? (Select 2)
  700. What is the main benefit of Syndication?
  701. The Multi-user Access bulk workflow prevents you from setting up multiple consolidated logins at once. True or false?
  702. How many managing customers can you grant access for on your account? (And likewise remove?)
  703. Where might your Microsoft Audience Ads be displayed?
  704. Before you create product ads in a shopping campaign, you must first do what? Choose all that apply.
  705. Where can you select different options depending on whether you have one or multiple accounts?
  706. With Google Import, you can decide if you’d like to import all existing and new campaigns from Google Ads or just specific campaigns. True or false?
  707. What are the benefits of having an upgraded URL?
  708. Microsoft Advertising Editor does not allow you to import your Google Ads campaigns directly into the Editor, make changes, and post them. True or false?
  709. In Microsoft Advertising, which customer actions are considered conversions? (Select 3)
  710. What are the three categories of attributes for ad customizer feeds?
  711. It is possible to bulk edit and manage multiple accounts using a Mac. True or False?
  712. Recent updates to the Microsoft Advertising Editor are the following:
  713. With LinkedIn Profile Targeting, you can target customers based on what criteria?
  714. The Microsoft Advertising Intelligence keyword planner tool is a paid-subscription tool that builds keyword lists. True or false?
  715. LinkedIn Profile Targeting when used with ‘Bid only’ target setting will narrow your ad’s audience. True or False?
  716. What needs to happen before you import your custom audiences into Microsoft Advertising for search remarketing?
  717. Each campaign you create will have its own ___________.
  718. With Microsoft Advertising, you can export which kinds of campaigns?
  719. Price Extensions are a pay-per-click extension that display your products or services. True or false?
  720. What are two ways you can advantage of audience targeting? (Select 2)
  721. If you are unable to find your ad in the Microsoft Advertising Network results pages, why should you first examine the Impressions column in the Microsoft Advertising data summary tables?
  722. What should you do after accessing the Opportunities tab for further optimization? Choose all that apply.
  723. Which of the following can you customize in Microsoft Advertising Editor?
  724. What key strategies might an advertiser use Microsoft Advertising Intelligence for?
  725. In-market audiences can be imported from Google Ads campaigns. True or False?
  726. You can save time and effort with the Google Merchant Center (GMC) Import if you have _________ up and running.
  727. The only way to use Hotel Ads is to sign up with your account manager. True or false?
  728. What is an example of a remarketing exclusion along with remarketing targeting?
  729. Best practices for using automated rules include the following: (Select 3)
  730. When using Dynamic search ads, what happens after you create specific ad text for your relevant targets?
  731. Which of these Scripts options are available to you in Microsoft Advertising?
  732. From where can you export data in Microsoft Advertising Editor?
  733. Microsoft Advertising Intelligence does not allow you to build separate reports. True or false?
  734. Which components are not required for a Microsoft Advertising expanded text ad? Choose all that apply.
  735. Universal Event Tracking (UET) is a mechanism for advertisers to do what?
  736. How many levels of organization are contained within the Hotel Ads structure?
  737. What is the best question to ask yourself when considering how to create a positive landing page experience?
  738. With Hotel Ads, how can you upload your bids, bid multipliers, and hotel group associations in bulk? (Select 3)
  739. What keyword-specific metrics might you use to tailor your bid strategy based on the price of your products or services?
  740. You can also use MAI to conduct international research by populating which boxes? Choose all that apply.
  741. With Call Extensions you can do the following: (Select 2)
  742. Imagine you are building a dynamic video campaign to create awareness for a new vitamin drink. One of the tools in this list below won’t help you. Which one is it?
  743. To Capture The “Do” Stage For A Marketing Campaign Selling Men’s Razors, You Invited Users Who Watched Your Entire Pre-Roll Ad To Sign Up For A Newsletter On Male Grooming Trends. The Results Were Dismal. Why?
  744. Waze is a _____ movement company, with the power to move people to you.
  745. Passing the “Toothbrush Test” means that drivers use Waze ____ times per day.
  746. What type of additional support do Preferred Partners receive?
  747. Which solution is meant for businesses with 1 to 10 locations?
  748. In 2017, ads on Waze generated how many navigations to local businesses around the world?
  749. Pricing for Waze Ads is based upon what type of model?
  750. What can advertising on Waze Local help businesses of all sizes achieve?
  751. Which Waze Partner Program service level requires Waze Ads Advanced Certification and a minimum quarterly investment?
  752. In the U.S., nearly half (46%) of all Waze users have a yearly household income of what amount (USD)?
  753. Which ad formats does the Plus solution offer?
  754. Name the level(s) of the Waze Partner Program.
  755. When designing Waze ads, all brand messaging and creative assets should be _______?
  756. What types of account management capabilities does the Starter Dashboard offer?
  757. What are some of the top advertiser categories on Waze?
  758. What account management capabilities does the Plus Dashboard offer?
  759. What should you consider to write a high-impact, aligned CTA for your Waze Ads ad?
  760. Waze Ads interact directly with drivers in motion, reaching them where?
  761. Ad Manager 360 Reseller Exam Answers
  762. Which of the following is correct?
  763. During implementation the client has indicated that they will need to serve pop-ups to various areas of the site. When generating ad tags what must be done?
  764. When serving mobile ads directly to an app, tags do not need to be size specific or specific to a mobile operating system.
  765. When a pass-back is used, Ad Manager counts two impressions for each ad served.
  766. To block the general category of ‘Home & Garden’ ads from showing on your Mobile In-App inventory for tablets, what should be selected in the targeting section of a blocking rule?
  767. The reporting metric “total network impressions” includes “unfilled impressions”
  768. Which of these features are app specific and not available for Mobile web? Select all that apply.
  769. A maximum of ___ images can be included in a mobile image carousel.
  770. Which of the following net bids would win in the Ad Manager auction?
  771. Ad units can have multiple sizes defined.
  772. A publisher typically uses Ad Manager to traffic Ad Manager ads in order to streamline their direct demand source.
  773. What is the effect of a trafficker changing a key-value pair from pre-defined to freeform (and changing back 5 minutes later)?
  774. A line item targeting a special ad unit will always serve to its children ad units.
  775. The “Override blocks” button was designed to disregard specific blocking rules in your Ad Manager account that may prevent a Preferred Deal or Private Auction from transacting.
  776. A client wants to serve a roadblock. However, they are using GPT format tags without SRA. What is a potential issue?
  777. Violation of the Ad Exchange program guidelines could lead to the suspension of the publisher’s account.
  778. What would you recommend to a retail publisher who is trying to run a forecast for Black Friday (a day when users buy a lot more goods than usual) in Ad Manager?
  779. Key values are case sensitive.
  780. Which source type requires a URL in order to sync with the content source and ingest content metadata?
  781. Since all Ad Manager networks are automatically enabled with Mobile In-App, a user can target either a mobile or desktop Ad Manager web property alias in Ad Manager without needing any initial setup from the Google support team.
  782. Click Tracking line items are possible in Ad Manager 360.
  783. Ad units can be saved without a defined size.
  784. A publisher has just switched over to Ad Manager 360 from another product 10 days ago. They are concerned the forecasting data they are seeing isn’t correct. What can you tell them to do?
  785. When testing if conversion tracking has been correctly implemented, where would you find a ping from I/GoogleConversionReporter?
  786. When creating a new rule, in which targeting option can you find the ability to include ‘Interstitial’ inventory?
  787. Ad Manager takes into account 28 days of historical data when running forecasts. Today is Monday. Which of the following accurately describes how the system forecasts what it believes will serve to a publisher’s homepage ad unit next Monday.
  788. Which section of a Blocking rule allows publishers to block Apparel ads?
  789. After 30 days of becoming an Ad Manager NPM partner, ad requests from unclassified domains will not deliver any ads.
  790. True or False? You can use both synchronous and asynchronous GPT tag types together on a single page.
  791. Which of the following does not comply with the Network Partner Management policy?
  792. In Ad Manager, Google collects payments from buyers and pays the seller, but does not take on the collection risk. Therefore if Google does not collect from the buyer, the seller will not get paid.
  793. This is your clients hierarchy: >Top level ad unit: Sports >Second level ad unit: Basketball (under Sports) >Third level ad unit: Lakers (under Basketball) >Third level special ad unit: Spurs (under Basketball) If an ad should serve to the ad unit Sports, which ad units are eligible?
  794. Correctly order the creation steps of a new Preferred Deal.
  795. A publisher based in New York complains no one in their office can see an ad on their homepage that should be delivering. You check Ad Manager and see the line item is a sponsorship at 100% and is targeted correctly on the page. You notice the ad is geotargeted to the cities of New York, San Francisco, and Los Angeles. You check and you are able to see the ad. You’re based in San Francisco. You run the Google Console and it shows the ad should always win. You check with a teammate in Chicago and he can’t see that ad. What is most likely the issue?
  796. Which of the following is NOT a recommended practice for inventory controls?
  797. (True of False) Once a Publisher Profile is created, it must be published immediately.
  798. The “Override blocks” feature only applies to RTB, or real time bidding, transactions.
  799. I have the following ads 1.A sponsorship ad at priority 4 and frequency capped at 5 per day (which it has reached) 2.A sponsorship ad at priority 10 and booked for 75% of daily volume, of which it has only 68% 3.A standard normal ad at priority 8 that is booked for 15,000 impressions but has only delivered 13,000 and ends its campaign in 2 months 4.A standard normal ad at priority 8 that is booked for 12,000 impressions, has only delivered 11,000 and ends its campaign in 1 week Which will Ad Manager serve first and why?
  800. What creative type would I use if I’m hosting the creative asset in Ad Manager but looking to track impressions in two other third-party servers?
  801. With Dynamic Allocation enabled, which of the following line items will serve?
  802. Can we have server-side implementation for smart phones?
  803. Can an ad unit be in multiple placements?
  804. Which type of macro is needed to track clicks for an image creative asset uploaded in Ad Manager?
  805. (True or False) All information included in a publisher profile is systematically entered by Google. No manually inputted information is required.
  806. If a standard line item is under-delivering what can you do to troubleshoot the issue?
  807. Which of these troubleshooting tools is NOT able to identify the line item id of a particular ad?
  808. A Channel with a semi-transparent branding type will reveal the Publisher ID to potential buyers in a bid request.
  809. A publisher is trying to keep their users happy while maximizing their revenue. Which of the following does NOT agree with user experience guidelines?
  810. After creating a new tag, you can regenerate the tag code snippet at any time.
  811. Which feature uses metadata to package videos based on their content into dynamic bundles and then target ads to those bundles?
  812. A publisher has determined that most of their users come to their site to read specific articles that they found through a search engine. Which approach would maximize the publisher’s revenue while keeping users happy?
  813. Estimated revenue is the exact amount a publisher will be paid in the next eligible payments cycle.
  814. To properly troubleshoot Ad Manager delivery issues, you will need the live page URL.
  815. Which SDK is required before serving ads to a mobile app?
  816. One domain cannot be classified to more than one network partner.
  817. A client has two 728×90 ad units and a 300×250 running on a page. They have a 728×90 & 300×250 sponsorship, but the sponsorships aren’t always delivering. What are the steps to troubleshoot?
  818. Preferred Deals is a feature that allows Ad Manager sellers to offer inventory to buyers at a fixed, pre-negotiated price before the inventory is made available to other buyers in the general auction.
  819. Which of the following destination options for mobile in-app ads could be used to open an application listing in the Google Play app?
  820. A client writes in that they’re seeing 117,149,387 unfilled impressions (over 25% of their inventory) What steps should the client take to troubleshoot?
  821. According to this Ad Manager video ad tag, which video ad type is being targeted? https://googleads.g.doubleclick.net/pagead/ads?client=ca-video-pub-652071 0435163184&slotname=8487431944&ad_type=skippablevideo_text_image_fl ash&description_url=http%3A%2F%2Famazingnewssite.com
  822. What feature allows you to alter the behaviour of your mobile app when certain ads are served?
  823. A publisher reports that they do not see a campaign with a 970×90 creative that is created as Sponsorship. Which one of the following is NOT a troubleshooting step?
  824. An SDK enables the video player to run video ads. Which one of the following is not a function of the SDK?
  825. Which one of the following is compatible with manual impression counting?
  826. Which one of the following industry standard video ad types allows you to create or schedule a playlist of video ads?
  827. Which of the following mobile ad types will match the look, feel and content of the app?
  828. A creative fails to render on a client’s page even though the line item wins ad selection when you look in Charles. What tools would be most helpful in troubleshooting the issue?
  829. Latency is expected to be higher in a ____________.
  830. Which of these video ad types is not supported by the Google IMA SDK on Android or iOS?
  831. You can test out your video ad tags by using our Video Suite _________.
  832. Match each of the following identifiers to the platform on which they are used.
  833. Which SDK will you need to integrate if you want to show video ads before, after, or during video content in your app?
  834. For ____________ ads, impressions are delayed by default until the ad is displayed to the user.
  835. Do Rich Media ads require SDK?
  836. When creating a new video ad tag, which “Technology” option would you select if your video player is integrated with Google’s IMA SDK?
  837. Your Publisher has contacted you about a possible malicious ad displaying on their site. What information do you need and how can they obtain it, to allow you to further troubleshoot?
  838. Taller ads tend to perform better from a viewability perspective.
  839. When creating a new video ad tag, one step involves filling out a tag generator form. However, you need not fill out this form if ____________________________________.
  840. If your video player is not integrated with Google’s IMA SDK, the following Ad Manager line item priority types are available to use except …
  841. Which ad rules setting allows you place short video ads before or after the actual video ad runs?
  842. Which is the one video creative type that will work with the fallbacks feature?
  843. What is a description URL?
  844. Adsense Multiple Customer Management Exam Answers
  845. You have to enable AdSense backfill when you create ad units, in order to use dynamic allocation.
  846. You can’t integrate one Adsense property with multiple Analytics web properties.
  847. You can use ads to target by keywords.
  848. You can enable revenue sharing on a product level. (e.g. Adsense for Content vs Adsense Games)
  849. With Dynamic Allocation, which of the following line items is served?
  850. Why would a publisher want to setup Custom Channels in their AdSense account? Select all that apply.
  851. Which one of the following products is NOT an option for monetization with the AdSense MCM tool?
  852. Which one of the following is an option for a managed publisher to remove the Channel Partner as an account Manager in their AdSense UI?
  853. Which one of the following is NOT option for accessing a child publisher’s account?
  854. Which one of the following is NOT an option for sending an invitation to publishers?
  855. Which one of the following is NOT a status that you can track once an invitation is sent?
  856. Which one of the following is NOT a requirement when publisher accepts the invitation?
  857. Which of the following is an acceptable modification to the AdSense code?
  858. Which of the following is a requirement for AdSense publishers to get paid? Select all that apply.
  859. Which of the following does NOT violate the AdSense ad implementation policies?
  860. Which of the following can you NOT use to specify as a backup ad?
  861. Which of the following Google products can be served through Dynamic Allocation? Select all that apply.
  862. Which of the following Ad Manager SB terms describes the process of setting up and managing ad campaigns by creating orders, line items and creatives and targeting them?
  863. Which of the below is an online marketplace where buyers can purchase inventory from multiple participating sellers and publishers can manage multiple buyers to get the highest yield at scale?
  864. Which of following statement about Ad Manager is NOT true?
  865. Which of following line item type(s) is(are) served before competing with AdSense/Ad Manager?
  866. Which of following Ad Manager Small Business ‘target window options’ will enable ads open in new window?
  867. Which frequency cap is the optimal number for each user if the average user sees 50 impressions per day and the publisher uses 10 ad networks?
  868. When creating ad units, which ad type should publishers choose to maximize revenue and why?
  869. When a publisher visits his own sports news site, he notices that the ads unit sizes he has selected for his homepage don’t really fit the style of his website. What can he do?
  870. What is the difference between a standard user vs adminstrator account access level?
  871. What is partial management mode?
  872. What is full management mode?
  873. What is NOT the reason for AdSense earning deduction?
  874. What happens if you don’t define the revenue share for a publisher?
  875. Users with access to my Analytics account will not have access to my AdSense account.
  876. To run a new campaign through Ad Manager SB, you will first need to create a(an) _________.
  877. The site management feature allows you to build a list of sites to use in site-related actions, such as setting up site-level blocking rules.
  878. The revenue share you set will be applied to the 68% of the revenue that remains.
  879. The invitation email sent to publishers is available in all Adsense languages.
  880. The MCM tools lets you have more control than the publishers themselves.
  881. The MCM tools allows only the publisher to remove the Partner and it doesn’t enable for the Partner to remove the publisher
  882. The MCM tool is only available to Certified Publishing Partners.
  883. The MCM tool does NOT enable revenue sharing.
  884. The Google Publisher Toolbar provides a more detailed view of ads on a site as well as controls to block an ad, a URL or an ad network, or report a problem with an ad.
  885. Select the options which enable the managed publisher to view the revenue share in the AdSense UI
  886. Provided it does not hurt the user experience, a publisher can increase their revenue by adding a 160×600 ad unit instead of a 300×600 ad unit on their site.
  887. One of the most important optimizations a publisher can do is to have at least one ad unit above the fold.
  888. It is commonly seen that wider ad sizes tend to outperform their taller counterparts, due to their reader-friendly format.
  889. In a certain day, if there are 3 line items, 1) Sponsorship A: 50% of impressions 2) Standard B: 100 impressions 3) AdSense: Backfill and 500 ad impressions are requested, how many impressions are served by AdSense?
  890. In a certain day, if there are 3 line items, 1) Sponsorship A: 50% of impressions 2) Sponsorship B: 30% 3) Standard C: 500 impressions and 1000 adpapisk impressions are requested, how many impressions are served by Standard C?
  891. In Dynamic allocation, AdSense/Ad Manager compete with all line item types.
  892. In Dynamic allocation, Ad Manager selects the best line item that can serve to the impression by comparing their CPCs.
  893. How should a publisher best react when they receive a policy notification asking them to make changes to their site?
  894. How many standard users and administrators can an AdSense account have?
  895. Google is not serving ads for a publisher on certain web pages of her website. The publisher suspects that it is to due to the Adsense crawler. What is the best course of action?
  896. Google AdSense publishers are not allowed to use Google AdWords to increase their site traffic.
  897. Channel Partner, ABC, can learn about policy information when on the Manage account tab. If ABC sees a blue circle next to the publishers’ name, what does this mean?
  898. CPM is an AdSense-only term used to report publishers’ impression-based revenue and RPM is an industry-wide term that refers to impression-based bids from advertisers.
  899. Advertisers who use Google AdWords can only place ads on Google owned and operated properties.
  900. Advertisers that use Google AdWords can bid for ad placements using which of the following metrics? Select all that apply.
  901. AdSense competes only with line item type of network, bulk, price priority or house.
  902. Ad Manager forecasting is designed to help publishers sell all of their inventory while avoiding overselling.
  903. Above-the-fold ads that are placed at the very top of the page have a higher viewability rate than those placed just below the top navigation bar.
  904. ABC manages several publishers. ABC wants to check what ad units for a particular publisher are under their control. Which one of the following sections in the UI where ABC can check this information?
  905. ABC is partially managing publisher A’s Adsense account under partial management. What steps can ABC take to manage publishers A’s newly created ad units?
  906. A publisher’s AdSense account reached the payment threshold at 1st February. When will they get paid?
  907. A publisher whose site contains a lot of user-generated content would like to ensure they don’t violate the AdSense content policies. Which of the following would NOT be an effective solution?
  908. A publisher was having trouble implementing their ad code and placed the ad within an iFrame. Is this implementation permitted by Google’s Adsense policy?
  909. A publisher wants to increase the number of users that become loyal and return to the site regularly. Which of the following would NOT help them achieve this goal?
  910. A publisher wants to add a blocking rule across one of their domains but first he/she must add the site under Site Management. Which URL format will the publisher use to ensure that the blocking rule is applied to the entire domain?
  911. A publisher runs a site focused on finding housing options for adult professionals. This publisher is considering blocking the entire “real estate” category to avoid advertising for any competitors. How might this action affect the publisher’s revenue?
  912. A publisher is looking for ways to increase their revenue. Which of the following is NOT an action they should consider?
  913. A publisher has installed the Google Publisher Toolbar on their site and would like to “test click” on ad overlays. Will these clicks be counted towards ad spam?
  914. A publisher has all the below options for blocking ads through the AdSense interface except _________.
  915. A publisher has a text ads only leaderboard on top of a page and a text ads only small square within the content of that page. The small square ad unit has higher CTR, but the leaderboard has better CPCs. Is there anything the publisher can do to increase their earnings? Select all that apply.
  916. Why would you look at an impression lost chart when making quick optimizations?
  917. Why would you use fixed manual bidding for a line item instead of leaving it to automated algorithmic bidding?
  918. Campaign Manager Optimization Assessment Answers
  919. Dynamic Creatives Assessment Answers
  920. What three types of audiences are available to DoubleClick advertisers to help them reach their audiences with the right message at the right moment?
  921. What’s one way DoubleClick Dynamic Creative saves advertisers’ time?
  922. Which DoubleClick products can serve creatives?
  923. Where can advertisers define all the different versions of a DoubleClick dynamic creative?
  924. What are data insights for DoubleClick advertisers?
  925. Where does the advertiser’s dynamic creative data feed live?
  926. What’s the basic goal of an advertiser’s dynamic creative strategy?
  927. How do DoubleClick impressions capture information about the viewers advertisers wants to reach?
  928. Which is the correct order for launching a dynamic campaign?
  929. How can advertisers bypass the step of adding the code from the Generate Code screen into their HTML5 creative?
  930. Display & Video 360 Basics Assessment Answers
  931. You’re using the Audience Builder tool to create an audience list based on users who have engaged with historical campaigns. Since you’re targeting the same groups, you want to be able to prevent visitors from seeing your ads too many times. What feature could you use to do this?
  932. What user permissions do you need to add your colleague as a user to your advertiser’s account?
  933. What’s the difference between Instant Reporting and a traditional report?
  934. You are contributing to the budget section in an advertiser’s media plan for some open auction video campaigns. You need some insights to inform the figures, such as overall unique reach for some given locations. Which feature would you use to achieve this?
  935. How would you best describe the functionality within the Audiences module?
  936. You’ve been added as a Creative user to an advertiser’s Display & Video 360 account. You’ve been asked to create a new high-format Flipbook ad with two variations for an upcoming campaign. What tool would you use to accomplish this task?
  937. Where would you navigate in Display & Video 360 to get quick insights into any unapproved creatives and information on your insertion orders, i.e., which ones are top pacing vs. under pacing?
  938. What is the new name for DoubleClick Bid Manager?
  939. You’ve browsed Marketplace and found some publisher inventory that matches your targeted age group and ad format for your prospective campaigns. But before you make a deal, you want to be able to discuss the price with the publisher. How would you do this?
  940. Which of the following statements best describes one function Display & Video 360 aims to help you do?
  941. What data-driven functionality in the Creatives module is available after you’ve created a set of, for example, Panorama format creatives?
  942. Why would you visit the Campaign module in Display and Video 360?
  943. Why would you navigate to the Brand Quality Hub?
  944. Choose the best statement to describe what the Creative module can help you do.
  945. Over time, which 4 products in Google Marketing Platform will have full convergence into Display & Video 360?
  946. How would you best describe the Spotlight section in Marketplace?
  947. Where would you go to get information about your campaigns’ health and suggestions for troubleshooting and optimizing live campaigns?
  948. Optimize Performance In DoubleClick Search Assessment Answers
  949. Optimize Bids And Creatives Assessment Answers
  950. Scaled Partner Management Exam Answers
  951. Which of the following is NOT an example of a sensitive category found in Protections?
  952. Which of the following does not comply with the Scaled Partner Management policy?
  953. Which of the following are ‘Mobile Inventory’ report dimensions? (select all that apply)
  954. Which of the following Ad Manager terms describes the process to set up and manage ad campaigns by creating orders, line items, and creatives, and then targeting them?
  955. Which of following Ad Manager “target window options” will make ads open in new window?
  956. Which ad size performs best when it is placed within an app’s text or other content, usually appearing after the user has scrolled below the fold?
  957. Which Standard Instream ad position might be compared to a commercial, meaning the ad will show at some point between when the feature video starts playing and before it ends?
  958. When using dynamic allocation, Ad Manager selects the best line item that can serve to the impression by comparing their CPCs (cost-per-click).
  959. What account capabilities are available with your Mobile In-App inventory? Select all that apply.
  960. Violation of the Google Ad Manager Partner Guidelines could lead to the suspension of the publisher’s account.
  961. To use the dynamic allocation feature in Ad Manager, AdSense and/or Ad Manager backfill must be enabled.
  962. To run a new campaign through Ad Manager, you will first need to create a(n) _____________.
  963. The following describes the Ad Manager Marketplace, except ________________.
  964. One domain cannot be classified to more than one child publisher.
  965. It’s commonly seen that wider ad sizes outperform their taller counterparts, due to their reader-friendly format.
  966. In order to show ads for your Mobile In-App inventory, what must be implemented into your app?
  967. From which section of the Reports > Queries tab can you find pre-made queries from Google, relevant to your Mobile inventory?
  968. For buyers, your Publisher Profile will be associated with all of the following except …
  969. After you create a new line item in a Ad Manager order, a creative set must be added. If the video player you’re using is not integrated with Google’s IMA SDK, which creative set type must be used?
  970. Ad Manager program guidelines allow up to __ display ads per page on a desktop website.
  971. A temporary CPM ____________.
  972. A publisher is looking for ways to increase their revenue. All of the following are appropriate actions to consider, except ________.
  973. A publisher has a text-only leaderboard on top of a page, and a text-only small square ad slot within the content of that page. The small square ad slot has a higher a CTR, but the leaderboard has high CPCs. Is there anything the publisher can do to try and increase their earnings? Select all that apply.
  974. A Preferred Deal is a feature that allows Ad Manager sellers to offer inventory to buyers at a fixed, pre-negotiated price before the inventory is made available to other buyers in the general auction.
  975. (True or False) In a Private Auction, you’re able to set minimum CPMs for different buyers.
  976. (True or False) A Private Auction is no different from the Open Auction.
  977. Google Educator Level 1 Exam Answers
  978. Mr. Swanson’s politics students had to create a blog about their policies if they were elected to be on the school’s student council. One student received a nasty response from an online user she doesn’t know. What advice should Mr. Swanson give her to overcome this type of response?
  979. Ms. Garcia has divided her class into groups to work on different geography projects. Each group will present their project to the class using Google Slides. What are some benefits of using Slides in group projects?
  980. Mr. Jones in keen to move to a paperless class as he finds the process of managing assignments time consuming. How will shifting to Classroom help?
  981. Mr. Hoffman is using Google Slides to introduce a new class project. He wants to embed and link to Docs, Forms and Drawings in order to make his slides more interactive. Use drag and drop to match the Google App with a way that it can be used within slides to encourage student participation.
  982. Integrating technology in the classroom can benefit a school in many ways, and for various groups of people. Match the benefits of a digital classroom with the pain points they overcome by moving the rows up and down.
  983. Students already familiar with a web-connected world will feel immediately at home with Google Classroom. What benefits will they enjoy from their assignments going online?
  984. Mr. Bentley finds it easy to use Google Docs, Sheets, and Slides in his classroom as they are very similar to other programs he’s used in the past. He overhears his colleague Ms. Bernard talk about using Google Forms as well, but isn’t sure how it’s relevant in a school environment. Which of the following are relevant uses for Google Forms in education?
  985. Ms. Dent wants to use Google Forms and Google Sheets to collect and tract different aspects of her students’ work. Use drag and drop to show how she could use these Google tools effectively.
  986. Mr. Brixham is the principal at a large school and receives an overwhelming volume of emails from teachers, support staff, students, parents, and the school district governors. He often struggles to find important emails quickly. How can he use the search function in Gmail to locate emails more efficiently?
  987. Mr. Murakami leaves written notes with motivational quotes for his students by writing them on paper and leaving them in different locations in his classroom. Occasionally his students will claim they didn’t get a note or admit that they lost it. What can he do to overcome the issue and still send these motivational messages?
  988. Ms. Villagarcia has been tasked by the principal to improve communication and discussion between teachers and support staff. What is the most appropriate tool to fulfill this need?
  989. Mr. Yarmouth needs to contact a student’s parents to congratulate the student on improved progress. However, their first language is German and they are not fully fluent in English. What is the quickest action he could do to produce an effective email on his own?
  990. Mr. Kapoor struggles to find inspiration from his peers. What is one benefit of establishing a Personal Learning Network (PLN)?
  991. You need to speak with local schools to discuss a sports tournament you are hosting at short notice. Your intention is to gain feedback on a planned program of events and share images of available facilities. Match the feature of Google Hangouts with its benefit by moving the rows up and down.
  992. Students in your biology class sometimes struggle to understand biological processes, like digestion. What digital activities can help get students more involved in exploring a process?
  993. Mr Blakeney’s students are starting to think about their future careers and which digital classroom skills they need to develop. Use drag and drop to separate digital classroom skills from traditional ones.
  994. Why explain the importance of digital citizenship in a digital classroom?
  995. Mr. Elba is editing a presentation in Google Slides and wants to improve the appearance of the slides. What visual elements can he incorporate into his presentation to make it more visually appealing?
  996. Mrs. Powell is looking at ways to reduce the amount of printing undertaken in class. How can Google Drive help?
  997. Ms. Pietersen is the deputy principal in a school split across two sites. She travels regularly between the two sites by bus, but is annoyed with the amount of time she wastes traveling. She would like to make better use of her commute time. What can she do?
  998. Mr. Perry has bookmarked a large number of webpages in Chrome while researching class topics. Unfortunately, he’s bookmarked so many that he’s struggling to find relevant content quickly. What can he do to simplify this?
  999. Klipfolio Expert Certification Exam Answers
  1000. Zeek is using the following Klipfolio date function to specify the “start_date” parameter in his api query: {date.add(-5).startOfMonth.format(“yyyy MMM dd”)}. If today is December 3, 2017, what is the value that is being input into the “start_date” parameter?